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Q:
The prevailing winds are generated by ____.
a. the heating of the ozone layer
b. variation in the input of solar radiation as you move east or west along a line of latitude
c. surface currents
d. major surface winds that blow almost continuously to help distribute heat and moisture over earth's surface
e. the gravitational attraction of the moon
Q:
The rain shadow effect refers to ____.
a. more light on the windward side of mountain ranges
b. more light on the leeward (facing away from the wind) side of mountain ranges
c. drier conditions on the windward side of mountain ranges
d. drier conditions on the leeward (facing away from the wind) side of mountain ranges
e. reduced sunlight below rain clouds
Q:
The transition zone between two ecosystems or biomes is called the ____.
a. bioline
b. interbiome
c. buffer
d. bio-boundary
e. ecotone
Q:
Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?
a. oxygen
b. water vapor
c. sulfur dioxide
d. nitrogen
e. argon
Q:
One explanation for why polar regions are colder than equatorial regions is that ____.
a. the sun never reaches these areas because of the tilt of Earth on its axis
b. sunlight strikes the polar regions at an angle and spreads out over a much larger area
c. sunlight is more intense at the poles
d. the earth is spinning slower at the poles
e. the earth is spinning slower and the precipitation is more intense at the poles
Q:
There are ____ separate belts (Hadley cells) in which warm air rises and cools, then falls and heats up again in great rolling patterns.
a. two
b. four
c. six
d. eight
e. ten
Q:
The equator is warmer than the poles because ____.
a. the suns rays strike directly at the equator
b. cooler air is less dense
c. the Coriolis effect pulls cold air north and south
d. polar ice sheets cool the atmosphere
e. the sun exerts a gravitational pull on the warm air
Q:
Human population growth since 1960 has been evenly distributed around the world.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Urban areas are attracting more and more residents, partly because of the hope for employment.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Over the last 200 years, death rates have dropped sharply because of improved sanitation and health care and the development of antibiotics and vaccines to help control infectious diseases.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Family planning, economic opportunities for women, and schooling for girls generally produces a higher birth rate.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Give one reason why taxing gasoline heavily would be difficult in the United States.
Q:
Give two reasons why larger families are still common in India, despite access to modern birth control methods.
Q:
Explain how demographic transition changes a countrys population growth rate over time.
Q:
Explain how a city affects local climate conditions.
Q:
Explain the term demographic momentum and provide a real-life example.
Q:
Briefly discuss the baby boomers and their effect on our population profile.
Q:
Explain why empowerment of women tends to slow population growth.
Q:
____________________ is the combination of all factors that act to limit the growth of a population.
Q:
Specialized traits or behaviors that allow a reduction of interspecific competition through species specialization in resource use, allow for _________________________.
Q:
The interaction between a lion and a hyena fighting over a dead zebra on the African Savannah is best described as ____________________.
Q:
The relationship between a lion and a zebra is said to be that of a(n) ____________________.
Q:
The most common interaction among species is ____________________, which occurs when members of one or more species interact to use the same limited resources such as food, water, light, and space.
Q:
A common tick is an example of a(n) ____________________.
Q:
MatchingMatch the items listed below with the appropriate choice.a. interspecific competitionb. predationc. parasitismd. mutualisme. commensalismf. mimicrySea lampreys attach themselves to fish such as trout.
Q:
MatchingMatch the items listed below with the appropriate choice.a. interspecific competitionb. predationc. parasitismd. mutualisme. commensalismf. mimicryClownfish live amongst the stinging tentacles of sea anemone. They keep the sea anemone tentacles clean by eating the debris, and they gain protection from other animals by living in the tentacles.
Q:
MatchingMatch the items listed below with the appropriate choice.a. interspecific competitionb. predationc. parasitismd. mutualisme. commensalismf. mimicryThe Owl Butterfly is native to Costa Rica. Its hindwings have patterns in the shape and size of the eyes of a large owl.
Q:
MatchingMatch the items listed below with the appropriate choice.a. interspecific competitionb. predationc. parasitismd. mutualisme. commensalismf. mimicryYour housecat kills the mice in your yard and around your house.
Q:
MatchingMatch the items listed below with the appropriate choice.a. interspecific competitionb. predationc. parasitismd. mutualisme. commensalismf. mimicryA kestrel (small hawk) and red-tailed hawk hunt for rodents in the same grassy meadow.
Q:
Geographic isolation and reproductive isolation can both lead to speciation.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Compounds in secretions from the skin of certain amphibians have been isolated and used as painkillers and antibiotics, and in treatments for burns and heart disease.
a. True
b. False
Q:
All nonnative species threaten ecosystems.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Even if a beneficial heritable trait is present in a population, the populations ability to adapt may be limited by its reproductive capacity.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The biological diversity of the earth is only a function of the number of species on the earth.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Genes mutate, individuals are selected, and populations evolve.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Heritable traits that give an individual some advantage over other individuals in the population are called adaptive traits.
a. True
b. False
Q:
It is impossible for a shark that has been caught and returned to the ocean to drown.
a. True
b. False
Q:
When biologists talk about the survival of the fittest, the fittest individuals are those that leave the most descendants, not those that are physically the strongest.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Evolution by natural selection involves a grand plan of nature in which species are to become more perfectly adapted.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Generalist species are more prone to extinction when environmental changes change rapidly than specialist species.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Most forms of energy can be classified as either ____.a. chemical or physicalb. kinetic or mechanicalc. potential or mechanicald. chemical or kinetice. potential or kinetic
Q:
Energy can be formally defined as the ____.a. velocity of any moving objectb. heat generated by atoms losing electronsc. capacity to do workd. displacement of heat from the sun to the earthe. process of moving objects
Q:
If a carbon atom combines with oxygen atoms to form CO2, this would be described as ____.a. a physical changeb. a chemical changec. both a physical and chemical changed. first a physical change, but then it becomes a chemical changee. neither a physical change or a chemical change, but a scientific change
Q:
The law of conservation of matter states that whenever matter undergoes a physical or chemical change, ____.a. atoms can be createdb. atoms can be destroyedc. atoms cannot be created or destroyedd. atoms can be destroyed if we compost theme. atoms can be created by reactions between organic compounds
Q:
Genes are composed of sequences of ____. a. ionsb. chromosomesc. cellsd. nucleotidese. proteins
Q:
Simple organic molecules called monomers can be linked together by chemical bonds to form ____.a. chromosomesb. lipidsc. polymersd. hydrocarbonse. elements
Q:
____ are the fundamental structural and functional units of life.a. Ionsb. Atomsc. Compoundsd. Moleculese. Cells
Q:
Which of the following contains all of the others?a. chromosomesb. genesc. cellsd. DNA moleculese. cell nuclei
Q:
The compound represented by the formula CH4 is ____.a. calcium carbonateb. carbon dioxidec. methane, a hydrocarbond. sodium chloridee. glucose, a simple carbohydrate
Q:
All organic compounds are characterized by the presence of ____.a. carbonb. hydrogenc. oxygend. nitrogene. phosphorus
Q:
An acidic solution would have ____. a. more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions and a pH greater than 7 b. more hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions and a pH greater than 7 c. more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions and a pH less than 7 d. more hydroxide ions than hydrogen ions and a pH of 7 e. more hydrogen ions than hydroxide ions and a pH less than 7
Q:
Many authors argue that OD is at a crossroads, and could contribute more in which of the following areas? (mark all that apply)
a. Individual assessments such as the Myers-Briggs
b. Systemic, large-scale change activities
c. Formulating strategy
d. Mergers and acquisitions
e. Facilitating meetings
Q:
The U.S. is generally known as a collective culture on the individualism-collectivism dimension.
a. True
b. False
Q:
In restrained cultures, moral discipline is important and there is less importance placed on time with friends or leisure activities.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Which of the following describes a low power distance culture?
a. Organizational members will do what is asked and avoid taking risks.
b. Organizational members prefer a competitive environment where status and achievement are important.
c. There is less emotional resistance to change and less emphasis on hierarchical structures.
d. Organizational members take care of one another as in a family.
Q:
OD is still coming to terms with its impact in a global environment. Hofstede developed a set of dimensions of culture to help us locate how cultures differ. Which of the following describes a cultural difference among organizations where some will tolerate ambiguity and unpredictability, where others prefer formal rules and procedures?
a. Power distance (high/low)
b. Uncertainty avoidance (high/low)
c. Individualism-Collectivism
d. Indulgent-Restrained
Q:
During the ending/exit stage, it is important to remember that it is possible for OD practitioners to leave too early, and it is possible for the practitioner to stay too long.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Which of the following are barriers to conducting an evaluation following an OD engagement?
a. Many practitioners are not formally trained in evaluation methods.
b. The client and practitioner may lack energy to evaluate the project.
c. Unclear goals in the contracting phase may make it difficult to determine what to evaluate.
d. All of the above.
Q:
Which of the following practices is recommended to help sustain change? (mark all that apply)
a. Periodic meetings to review how the change is going.
b. Reward systems that reinforce the change.
c. Large group gatherings to gather information about what is working and what organizational members are struggling with.
d. Regular visits from outside observers to provide an objective examination of the change.
Q:
Why might it be dangerous for an organization to "refreeze" (as in Lewin's classic definition of change) following a major change attempt?
a. Too much stability can inhibit the next attempt at change.
b. Most change attempts are not successful, and the organization should not try to adopt the change until it is proven.
c. Organizational members will resist the change.
Q:
Which of the following is a challenge in transorganizational systems?
a. Trust and collaboration among members
b. Hierarchy and structure of the collaborative
c. Membership relationships which complicate gaining agreement
d. All of the above
Q:
Why do organization designers pay attention to lateral capability?
a. Lateral capability works to improve skill gaps created when members do not understand the organization's strategy.
b. Lateral capability improves the information technology needs across groups.
c. Lateral capability helps share information across boundaries created by the structure.
d. Lateral capability clarifies the roles and responsibilities in the structure.
Q:
According to the text, which of the following stages of a merger/acquisition is most neglected?
a. Pre-contract, "due diligence" phase
b. Postcontract, "combination" phase
c. Postcombination, "integration" phase
Q:
In which intervention(s) would participants develop alternative visions or story-lines to describe a long-term future state, then develop action plans to help move in that direction? (mark all that apply)
a. Future search
b. Strategic planning
c. Scenario planning
d. Real-time strategic change
Q:
Which of the following is true about the matrix structure?
a. It can cause conflict when individuals have multiple managers.
b. It is easier to implement than other structures.
c. It is a good choice when the work is straightforward and there is a single area of focus.
Q:
Which of the following is true about the functional structure?
a. It can create barriers that slow down interdepartmental coordination.
b. Departments like human resources and marketing are decentralized throughout the structure.
c. It is especially good for multiple product lines and customer segments.
d. Its units are structured by products or geographies.
Q:
What are the five elements of the STAR model of organization design?
a. Strategy, structure, environment, leadership, culture
b. Strategy, structure, processes, rewards, people
c. Relationships, environment, technology, processes, people
d. Structure, skills, systems, culture, leadership
Q:
Which of the following is the "deepest" element of organizational culture on this list (less visible and most difficult to change)?
a. Language and jargon
b. Architecture and office layout
c. Decision-making styles
d. Assumptions and values
Q:
A confrontation meeting is a specific intervention to address team conflict.
a. True
b. False
Q:
What is a benefit of appreciative inquiry as a team intervention?
a. Team members are not bogged down by negativity but instead focus on their strengths.
b. The intervention addresses opportunities, gaps, and action plans to solve pervasive problems.
c. Past problems are solved through a disciplined process of inquiry, investigation, and measurement.
Q:
What is the purpose of a Workout session?
a. To clarify team roles.
b. To brainstorm solutions to problems and get rapid agreement on the solution.
c. To redesign work tasks so that jobs have the maximum amount of autonomy and skill variety.
d. To clarify confusion about the team's goals, mission, or future.
Q:
Before developing a team intervention, many practitioners start with a _____ to better understand what team issues need to be addressed.
a. team diagnostic survey
b. confrontation meeting
c. team startup meeting
d. role negotiation
Q:
A team development program, as a specific kind of team building intervention, usually addresses which of the following?
a. Team development programs are more likely to involve fun, after-work events.
b. Team development programs are more likely to be proactive events to improve a team than problem solving interventions.
c. Team development programs address sources of conflict, such as team roles.
Q:
Which of the following would likely be considered a team?
a. Four sales consultants who independently work on their own customer accounts.
b. Nine students who are all taking the same sociology course.
c. Three technicians who each take a step in the process of building custom computers.
d. All of the above.
Q:
Early stage theories of career development (entry, basic training, early career, midcareer, late career, retirement) probably no longer fit the experience of many of today's workers.
a. True
b. False
Q:
360 Feedback is an intervention where participants answer 360 questions about their own personal style, leadership preferences, communication skills, and more so that they receive a comprehensive view of their own skills and abilities.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Coaching follows a process similar to the OD process we have learned, including contracting, data gathering, diagnosis, feedback, and so on.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Coaching, like therapy or other psychological relationships, involves a deep understanding of the client's past, history, motives, and more.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of a 360 feedback process?
a. It can result in a greater self-awareness on the part of the person receiving feedback.
b. It is not likely to result in resistance or defensive behaviors.
c. Individuals get feedback from a wide range of people with whom they work.
d. It can make explicit the implicit expectations we often have of one another.
Q:
Which of the following is a concern or caution about using individual instruments or assessments?
a. Participants may reject the instrument or its interpretation.
b. Participants may answer questions trying to seek a right answer.
c. They may encourage stereotyping or labeling.
d. All of the above.