Business Development

Q: (p. 335) In acceptance sampling, the value for the acceptance number (c) is determined by the interaction of the acceptable quality level (AQL), the lot tolerance percent defective (LTPD), the probability of rejecting a high quality lot (alpha) and the probability of accepting a low quality lot (beta).

Q: (p. 335) In acceptance sampling, the number of units in the sample (n) is determined by the interaction of the acceptable quality level (AQL), the lot tolerance percent defective (LTPD), the probability of rejecting a high quality lot (alpha) and the probability of accepting a low quality lot (beta).

Q: (p. 334) Acceptance sampling is performed on goods that already exist to determine what percentage of items conforms to specifications.

Q: (p. 328) To obtain a 99.7 percent confidence level in a "p" chart we would use a value of 3 for "z".

Q: (p. 328) If the fraction defective is 0.4 based on a sample size of 100, the standard deviation used in the "p" chart is about 0.10.

Q: (p. 328) If the fraction defective is 0.12 based on a sample size of 16, the standard deviation used in the "p" chart is about 0.08.

Q: (p. 328) The value for "z" used in quality control charts is based on the degree of confidence you want to have in the resulting UCL and LCL values.

Q: (p. 326) The "p chart" is only useful for sampling that deals with continuous variables.

Q: (p. 327) A "p chart" has upper and lower control limits expressed as lines on the chart. As long as the sample values fall between these two lines there is no need to investigate process behavior.

Q: (p. 326) Attributes are those quality characteristics that are classified as either conforming or not conforming to specification.

Q: (p. 328) Measurement by attributes means taking a sample, measuring the attribute in question and determining the level of quality in the population from which the sample was drawn.

Q: (p. 326) Statistical process control involves testing random samples of output from a process to determine whether the process is producing items within a pre-selected range.

Q: (p. 326) Process control is concerned with monitoring quality after the product or service has been produced.

Q: (p. 323) The capability index is used to gauge economic changes in service systems.

Q: (p. 320) Genichi Taguchi's view of the cost of quality is that variance is a discontinuous function.

Q: (p. 320) It is impossible to have zero variability in production processes.

Q: (p. 318) Variation that is inherent in a production process itself is called common variation.

Q: (p. 318) Variation that is inherent in a production process itself is called assignable variation.

Q: (p. 318) An example of assignable variation in a production system may be that a machine is not adjusted properly.

Q: (p. 318) An example of assignable variation in a production system may be that workers are not identically trained.

Q: (p. 318) Variation in production systems that is caused by factors that can be clearly identified and possibly even managed is called assignable variation.

Q: (p. 312) ISO standards ask a company first to document and implement its systems for quality management and then to verify, by means of an internal audit the compliance of those systems with the requirements of the standards.

Q: (p. 312) ISO 14000 is primarily concerned with environmental management.

Q: (p. 312) ISO 9000 is primarily concerned with environmental management.

Q: (p. 312) The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is a specialized international agency recognized by affiliates in more than 160 countries.

Q: (p. 315) Design of Experiments (DOE) is sometimes referred to as multivariate testing.

Q: (p. 315) Design of Experiments (DOE) refers to work done before production of early model prototypes of a new product.

Q: (p. 314) The term CTQ stands for "Cost Through Quality" which is another way to express Philip Crosby's idea that "Quality is Free."

Q: (p. 314) The term CTQ is used in the "Define (D)" portion of the DMAIC methodology.

Q: (p. 310) W. Edwards Deming states that the correct cost for a well-run quality management program should be under 0.5 percent of sales.

Q: (p. 310) Philip Crosby states that the correct cost for a well-run quality management program should be under 2.5 percent of sales.

Q: (p. 315) An opportunity flow diagram is a time sequenced chart showing plotted values measuring the flow of end product or components.

Q: (p. 315) An opportunity flow diagram is used to separate the value-added from the non-value-added steps in a process.

Q: (p. 313) A process that is in six-sigma control will produce no more than two defects out of every million units.

Q: (p. 313) Six-sigma refers to the philosophy and methods that some companies use to eliminate defects in their products and processes.

Q: (p. 310) One of the definitions for the cost of quality is that it represents the costs attributable to the production of quality that is not 100 percent perfect.

Q: (p. 308) Design quality in products refers to the degree to which a product or service design specifications are met.

Q: (p. 309) "Quality at the source" refers to the degree to which a product or service design specifications are met.

Q: (p. 309) The term "conformance quality" refers to the relative level of performance of a product as compared to competing products. For instance, certain luxury sedans are said to be of "higher quality" than some low-priced sub-compact automobiles.

Q: (p. 308) Fundamental to any quality program is the determination of quality specifications and the costs of achieving (or not achieving) those specifications.

Q: (p. 307) A quality guru named Joseph M. Juran is well known for his program structured around "14 points" for management.

Q: (p. 307) A quality guru named Philip Crosby suggested that a general approach to quality management should involve prevention, not inspection.

Q: (p. 307) A quality guru named Joseph M. Juran defined quality as fitness for use.

Q: (p. 307) A quality guru named Philip Crosby defined quality as conformance to requirements.

Q: (p. 307) A quality guru named Philip Crosby defined quality as fitness for use.

Q: (p. 306) While small business organizations can seek to achieve the Baldrige National Quality Award, hospitals cannot.

Q: (p. 306) While business organizations can seek to achieve the Baldrige National Quality Award, universities cannot.

Q: (p. 307) The Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award represents the U. S. government's endorsement of quality as an essential part of successful business strategy.

Q: (p. 309) Conformance quality is a strategic decision for a firm.

Q: (p. 307) In 1997 the Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Improvement Act established the U.S. annual award for total quality management.

Q: (p. 315) One of the tools common to all quality efforts is leadership.

Q: (p. 308) Design quality refers to the inherent value of the product in the marketplace.

Q: (p. 306) An operational goal of total quality management is ensuring that the organization's systems will never produce a defective product or service.

Q: (p. 306) An operational goal of total quality management is ensuring that the organization's systems can consistently produce the product or service as it is designed.

Q: (p. 306) An operational goal of total quality management is the careful design of the product or service.

Q: (p. 315) One SPC tool used in total quality management is the Pareto chart.

Q: (p. 315) One tool used in total quality management is the run chart.

Q: (p. 306) TQM is an acronym meaning "total quality measurement."

Q: (p. 306) TQM was defined in the textbook as managing the entire organization so that it excels on all dimensions of products and services that are important to the customer.

Q: (p. 283) Which of the following is the net requirement using an MRP program if the gross requirement is 1,250 and the inventory on hand is 50? A. 1,200 B. 1,300 C. 1,150 D. 2,450 E. None of the above

Q: (p. 279) Which of the following is considered a primary report in an MRP system? A. Planned order schedule B. Peg report C. Planning report D. Inventory accuracy report E. Aggregate production plan report

Q: (p. 279) Which of the following is considered a secondary report in an MRP system? A. Planned order schedule B. Exceptions reports C. Inventory record D. Firm orders from known customers E. Engineering change reports

Q: (p. 279) Which of the following is considered a primary report in an MRP system? A. Planning reports B. Performance reports C. Exception reports D. Planned order schedules E. Cycle counting reports

Q: (p. 282) In a typical inventory status record which of the following would you not expect to see? A. Scrap allowance B. Order quantity C. Gross requirements D. Planned-order releases E. Lost items

Q: (p. 282) We would expect to see which of the following in an MRP system's inventory status file? A. End items produced B. Late/early delivery records C. Scrap parts D. Labor efficiency E. Computer errors

Q: (p. 282) Which of the following files allows us to retrace a material requirement upward in the product structure through each level, identifying each parent item that created the demand? A. Planning bill of materials file B. Modular bill of materials file C. Super bill of materials file D. Exception report file E. Peg record file

Q: (p. 282) In an MRP program, the program accesses the status segment of an inventory record according to specific periods called which of the following? A. Cubed time units B. Time buckets C. BOM units D. Time modules E. Time lines

Q: (p. 279) Which of the following is not a production activity report generated by MRP? A. Exception report B. Planning report C. Performance control report D. Planned-order schedules E. Bill of materials report

Q: (p. 279) Which of the following is an input file necessary to run an MRP system? A. Exception report B. Computer-aided-design files C. Inventory records file D. Personnel files E. Planned order schedule

1 2 3 … 923 Next »

Subjects