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Q:
(p. 145) For an activity in a CPM analysis, the Early Start time is 8 and the Late Start time is 10. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The Late Finish is 12
B. The Early Finish is 10
C. The slack for this activity is 2
D. The duration of this activity is 2
E. The activity is on the critical path
Q:
(p. 145) A company must perform a maintenance project consisting of seven activities. The activities, their predecessors, and their respective time estimates are presented below: Using CPM, which activities have slack in this project?
A. A, B, C
B. B, D
C. Only C
D. C, E
E. F, G
Q:
(p. 145) A company must perform a maintenance project consisting of seven activities. The activities, their predecessors, and their respective time estimates are presented below: Using CPM, what is the Latest Finish Time for the last activity in this project (i.e., the total time to complete the project)?
A. 9 days
B. 10 days
C. 11 days
D. 12 days
E. 13 days
Q:
(p. 145) A company must perform a maintenance project consisting of seven activities. The activities, their predecessors, and their respective time estimates are presented below: Using CPM, which activities make up the critical path?
A. A, B, D, F, G
B. A, C, E, F, G
C. A, C, B, F, E
D. A, D, E
E. None of the above
Q:
(p. 143) A simple project listing of five activities, their predecessors and their respective time estimates are presented below: Using the CPM, which activities have slack in this project?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. C and E
Q:
(p. 143) A simple project listing of five activities, their predecessors and their respective time estimates are presented below: Using CPM, what is the Latest Finish Time for the last activity in this project (i.e., the total time to complete the project)?
A. 10 days
B. 7 days
C. 8 days
D. 12 days
E. 9 days
Q:
(p. 143) A simple project listing of five activities and their respective time estimates are presented below: Using CPM, which activities make up the critical path?
A. A, C, D, E
B. A, B, D, E
C. A, C, B, D, E
D. A, D, E
E. None of the above
Q:
(p. 135) You have been placed in charge of a large project. Shortened communication lines are required to insure quick resolution of problems as they arise. You recognize that the project is going to take a lot of time and require a lot of team pride, motivation, and commitment by all members. Which project management structure should you use in this situation?
A. Pure Project
B. Task force
C. Matrix Project
D. Functional Project
E. PERT
Q:
(p. 135) You have just been assigned to oversee a series of projects. Functional areas will loan you personnel for each project and separate project managers will be responsible for separate projects. These project managers will report to you. Which project management structure is being used?
A. Pure Project
B. Task force
C. Matrix Project
D. Functional Project
E. PERT
Q:
(p. 143) PERT is an abbreviation for which of the following methodologies?
A. Product Evaluation, Result and Treatment
B. Programming and Evaluation Realization Technology
C. Program Evaluation and Review Technique
D. Process Evaluation and Review Technology
E. It is a name, not an abbreviation for anything
Q:
(p. 140) You are looking at a chart that has the terms BCWS, BCWP and AC indicating lines on the chart. What kind of chart are you looking at?
A. Gantt Chart
B. PERT Chart
C. Bar/Milestone Chart
D. Total Program Cost Breakdown
E. EVM Chart
Q:
(p. 135) A series of projects that are organized in such a way that each project utilizes people from different functional areas is using which of the following organizational structures?
A. Matrix project
B. Integrated Task Force
C. Functional project
D. Pure project
E. Cross-functional flexible team
Q:
(p. 135) Some of the advantages of a functional project where the project is housed in a functional division include which of the following?
A. The project manager has full authority over the project
B. Team pride, motivation, and commitment are high
C. A team member can work on several projects
D. Needs of the client are secondary
E. None of the above
Q:
(p. 139) Which of the following is a graphic project report used in project management?
A. Project proposal
B. Approved project plan
C. Humphrey chart
D. Equipment and supplies chart
E. Cost and performance tracking schedule
Q:
(p. 139) In a Gantt chart the horizontal axis is usually which of the following?
A. Activities
B. Cost
C. Profit
D. Time
E. Milestones
Q:
(p. 136) What is a work breakdown structure?
A. A list of the activities making up the higher levels of the project
B. A definition of the hierarchy of project tasks, subtasks, and work packages
C. A depiction of the activities making up a project
D. A Gantt chart
E. A structure that is incompatible with the Critical Path Method
Q:
(p. 136) A project starts out as which of the following?
A. A Statement of Work
B. Critical Path Method (CPM)
C. A series of milestones
D. A Gantt chart
E. A latest-start-time estimate
Q:
(p. 136) A project can be subdivided into which of the following?
A. Job orders
B. Sub-jobs
C. Work Packages
D. Sub-paths
E. Events and decisions
Q:
(p. 138) Earned Value Management (EVM) has the capability to combine measurements of scope, schedule and cost in a project.
Q:
(p. 140) The valuations in an Earned Value Management analysis must be either profits or revenue.
Q:
(p. 138) Earned Value Management (EVM) is a technique for measuring project progress in an objective manner.
Q:
(p. 132) Derivative projects are those which address incremental changes to products or processes.
Q:
(p. 132) Breakthrough projects are those that provide fundamental improvements to existing products.
Q:
(p. 136) A project milestone is a specific event to be reached by a particular point in time.
Q:
(p. 156) Project management software available today combines CPM and other scheduling aids, like Gantt charting, to aid in tracking progress of project completion.
Q:
(p. 144) One of the assumptions made using CPM is that project activity sequence relationships can be specified and networked.
Q:
(p. 138) One of the assumptions made using CPM is that project activities can be identified with clear beginning and ending points.
Q:
(p. 152) When reducing the planned duration of a project using the Time-Cost CPM model we select the activity to crash by determining the cost of each alternative and selecting the one whose cost is the greatest.
Q:
(p. 152) In the Time-Cost CPM model, cost is assumed to be a linear function of time.
Q:
(p. 152) Using the Time-Cost CPM model, the crash time is the shortest possible time allowed for each activity in the project.
Q:
(p. 151) You are managing a project and need to cut the cost of the project. You decide to transfer workers to another job to cut the project's costs. Costs associated with transferring the workers are an example of project indirect costs.
Q:
(p. 151) The activity direct costs associated with a project might include giving workers overtime to complete a project in less-than the expected time.
Q:
(p. 151) The project indirect costs associated with a project include overhead, facilities, and resource opportunity costs.
Q:
(p. 147) Calculating the early start and early finish times for each activity in a CPM analysis does not provide any useful information.
Q:
(p. 146) The critical path in a CPM analysis is found by locating the activities times with zero slack.
Q:
(p. 145) In a CPM analysis if you subtract the early start from the late start the result is the activity's slack time.
Q:
(p. 145) In a CPM analysis if you subtract the late finish from the early finish the result is the activity's slack time.
Q:
(p. 145) Slack activity time is the difference between the early start and the late finish of a project activity time.
Q:
(p. 143) The critical path in a CPM analysis is always the shortest path through the network.
Q:
(p. 145) The critical path in a project is that sequence of activities that consume the longest amount of time in a project network of activities.
Q:
(p. 145) In CPM the late start time estimate is the latest time you can start an activity and still keep the entire project on schedule.
Q:
(p. 143) CPM is an abbreviation for Critical Path Method.
Q:
(p. 143) The critical path of activities in a project is the sequence of activities that form the shortest chain in a project network of activities.
Q:
(p. 136) A disadvantage of a matrix project organizational structure is that a project manager is held responsible for successful completion of the project.
Q:
(p. 133) A matrix project structure is often referred to as a "skunkworks."
Q:
(p. 135) A matrix project attempts to blend properties of functional and pure project structures.
Q:
(p. 135) One of the advantages of a functional project organizational structure is that a team member can work on several projects.
Q:
(p. 133) One of the disadvantages of a pure project organizational structure is that the project manager has full authority over the project.
Q:
(p. 133) Upper level management must decide between pure, functional, and matrix structures as ways to organize projects.
Q:
(p. 138) The Gantt chart is an example of a project control chart.
Q:
(p. 133) The fact that organizations are flattening is one of the reasons that project management is important.
Q:
(p. 138 & 144) A work breakdown structure is used in project management but it is not used when the critical path method is involved.
Q:
(p. 136) Complex projects are often subdivided into a series of tasks that are typically configured to be not longer than several months in duration.
Q:
(p. 133-136) An event unit package is a subdivision of a project.
Q:
(p. 133) The second step in managing a project is writing the Statement of Work.
Q:
(p. 133) A project may be defined as a series of related jobs directed toward some major output and requiring a significant period of time to perform.
Q:
(p. 133) Project management can be defined as planning, directing, and controlling resources to meet the technical, cost, and time constraints of the project.
Q:
(p. 109-110) Describe the relationship between capacity utilization and quality in a service operation.
Q:
(p. 109) Why does volatility of demand have a higher effect on a service delivery system than on a manufacturing system?
Q:
(p. 103; 109) What is a capacity cushion and why would a firm have one?
Q:
(p. 103) If the best operating level of a piece of equipment is at a rate of 400 units per hour and the actual output during an hour is 300 units, what is the capacity cushion? __________________
Q:
(p. 99) If the best operating level of a piece of equipment is at a rate of 400 units per hour and the actual output during an hour is 300 units, what is the capacity utilization rate? ____________________
Q:
(p. 105-106) A chance node on a decision tree has four possible outcomes worth $10,000, $20,000, $30,000 and minus $100,000 respectively. The probabilities of these outcomes occurring are assessed as 10%, 25%, 50% and 15% correspondingly. What is the expected value of this chance node? _________________________
Q:
(p. 102) If demand for product "A" were forecast at 1,000,000 units for the coming year and your factory has one machine capable of producing 75,000 units per month, how much of product "A" might you plan to acquire through outsourcing? _______________
Q:
(p. 104) If demand for product "A" were forecast at 1,000,000 units for the coming year and your factory has one machine capable of producing 4,500 units per week, how many similar machines might you plan to acquire? ___________________
Q:
(p. 103) If demand for product "A" were forecast at 1,000,000 units for the coming year and your factory has trained labor and equipment sufficient to produce 150,000 units per month, is the capacity cushion positive or negative? ____________________
Q:
(p. 105-106) A chance node on a decision tree has four possible outcomes each worth $100,000. The probabilities of the outcomes occurring are assessed as 10%, 27%, 43% and 20%. What is the expected value of this chance node? ____________________
Q:
(p. 98) Capacity planning involving consideration of production scheduling and inventory position is characterized by which one of the following time durations?
A. Intermediate-range
B. Long-range
C. Short-range
D. Current
E. Upcoming
Q:
(p. 108) What is an important difference between capacity planning in services as contrasted to capacity planning in manufacturing operations?
A. Time
B. Location
C. Demand volatility
D. Utilization impacts service
E. All of the above
Q:
(p. 106-108) At a decision point in a decision tree, which machine would you select when trying to maximize payoff when the anticipated benefit of selecting machine A is $45,000 with a probability of 90%; the expected benefit of selecting machine B is $80,000 with a probability of 50% and the expected benefit of selecting machine C is $60,000 with a probability of 75%?
A. Machine A
B. Machine B
C. Machine C
D. You would be indifferent between machines A and C
E. You would be indifferent between machines A and B
Q:
(p. 108) Compared with a service operation, a manufacturing operation's capacity is which of the following?
A. More dependent on time and location
B. Subject to more volatile demand fluctuations
C. Utilization more directly impacts quality
D. Demand can be smoothed by inventory policies
E. More capable of reacting to demand fluctuations
Q:
(p. 105) Which of the following models uses a schematic model of the sequence of steps in a problem and the conditions and consequences of each step?
A. Probability indexing
B. Johnson's sequencing rule
C. Decision trees
D. Activity System Maps
E. Decision mapping
Q:
(p. 103) Which of the following is not a step used in determining production capacity requirements? A. Forecasting to predict product sales B. Forecasting raw material usage C. Projecting availability of labor D. Calculating equipment and labor needs E. Projecting equipment availability
Q:
(p. 100) When deciding to add capacity to a factory which of the following need not be considered?
A. Maintaining system balance
B. The frequency of capacity additions
C. Use of external capacity
D. Immediate product demand
E. Availability of raw materials
Q:
(p. 101) The way to build in greater flexibility in your workers is to do which of the following?
A. Pay higher wages to motivate a willingness to do a variety to tasks
B. Provide a broader range of training
C. Provide a wide variety of technology to augment workers skills
D. Institute a "pay for skills" program
E. Use part-time employees with specialized skills as needed
Q:
(p. 100) The capacity focus concept can be put into practice through a mechanism called which of the following?
A. Best operating level (BOL)
B. Plant within a plant (PWP)
C. Total quality management (TQM)
D. Capacity utilization rate (CUR)
E. Zero-changeover-time (ZXT)
Q:
(p. 103) If the best operating level of a piece of equipment is at a rate of 400 units per hour and the actual output during an hour is 300 units, which of the following is the capacity cushion?
A. 25 percent
B. 100 units per hour
C. 75 percent
D. 125 percent
E. 133 percent
Q:
(p. 99) If the actual output of a piece of equipment during an hour is 500 units and it's best operating level is at a rate of 400 units per hour, which of the following is the capacity utilization rate?
A. 0.75
B. 1.00
C. 1.25
D. 1.33
E. 100
Q:
(p. 99) If the best operating level of a piece of equipment is at a rate of 400 units per hour and the actual output during an hour is 300 units, which of the following is the capacity utilization rate?
A. 0.75
B. 1.00
C. 1.33
D. 2.33
E. 300
Q:
(p. 98) Capacity planning involving acquisition or disposal of fixed assets such as buildings, equipment or facilities is considered as which one of the following planning horizons?
A. Intermediate-range
B. Long-range
C. Short-range
D. Current
E. Upcoming