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Q:
Which of the following is an advantage to using individual assessments or instruments?
a. They encourage the client organization to remain dependent on the facilitator for interpretation of the instrument.
b. They are usually free to obtain and easy to score.
c. They require very little training or expertise to implement.
d. They promote the participant's involvement in self-discovery.
Q:
Why are individual interventions sometimes insufficient for achieving organizational change?
a. Individuals work in organizational systems that may resist their attempts to change.
b. Individuals rarely achieve successful change when it is forced on them.
c. Other individuals may not support the individual who tried to change.
d. All of the above.
Q:
When selecting interventions, a consultant should select easier activities that minimize psychological strain on the organization before choosing activities that are more risky or high anxiety.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Which of the following is an ethical violation in selecting interventions?
a. The practitioner recommends that another colleague facilitate an intervention because he/she is not trained in it.
b. The practitioner wants to conduct the intervention only after data gathering.
c. The practitioner agrees with the client to avoid sharing the purpose of the intervention to get people to participate.
d. The practitioner agrees to allow the client to share responsibility for conducting the intervention.
Q:
The recommendation to consider "depth" of intervention means:
a. Most interventions should reach the depth of the interpersonal psyche.
b. Practitioners should intervene at the appropriate level, no deeper than necessary.
c. Few changes can successfully be accomplished at the level of work content.
d. The newer the group, the deeper the intervention needed.
Q:
When we agree to solve a client's presenting problem without data to determine the underlying problem, we are likely to experience a failed intervention. Why?
a. The change agent is not skilled.
b. We solved the wrong problem.
c. The client does not support the change.
d. The organization lacks readiness to change.
Q:
In a feedback meeting, clients who have a difficult time receiving feedback should be comforted by the OD consultant's calming statements such as "These are very common issues," and "In my experience, you won't have any trouble addressing this problem."
a. True
b. False
Q:
Why is "Compliance" the hardest form of resistance to see?
a. Because compliant clients work harder at hiding their resistance.
b. Because the consultant is getting the desired agreement and respect.
c. Because it reflects more serious concerns over the consultant's competence than other forms of resistance.
d. Because consultants do not experience it that often and are not skilled in noticing it.
Q:
Why do we say that it is not resistance when a client replies, "I understand the data; however, I am choosing not to move forward with this project"?
a. It is a direct and authentic reply.
b. The client does not really understand the data, and this is confusion, not resistance.
c. It does not directly fit with the 14 kinds of resistance that exist.
d. It is not resistance, but it is the first step in negotiating interventions with the consultant.
Q:
When using an inductive data gathering strategy, the OD consultant should:
a. Use general labels like "leadership" and "teamwork" rather than specific examples.
b. Always use a model to help organize the data.
c. Organize a list of "headlines" along with supplementary descriptions or quotes.
d. Support the conclusions by providing the client with all raw data gathered.
Q:
One reason we might use an inductive approach to analysis instead of a deductive approach is:
a. It can make coding the data easier.
b. It uses the participants' own categories and language.
c. It uses models that can help to communicate with clients.
d. It can make data interpretation easier.
Q:
One difference between an OD (Action) approach to data analysis and an academic (research) approach to data analysis is that an OD approach:
a. Is interested in a description of all the factors that impact the situation.
b. Requires completeness and comprehensiveness at every step.
c. Tries to eliminate bias and personal judgment.
d. Requires client involvement.
Q:
OD practitioners will sometimes sort data multiple times, invite a peer to help with data analysis, or share the analysis responsibility with the client. Why do they do this?
a. Data analysis is time consuming, and this reduces the time it takes to reach conclusions.
b. The goal is to reach a single right answer.
c. Most practitioners are only familiar with one method of analysis.
d. It can help to reduce bias.
Q:
It is considered ethically acceptable to disclose who made a comment in an interview if the client asks for it, and only if the comment was not sensitive.
a. True
b. False
Q:
One benefit of using observations as a data gathering strategy is:
a. Observation data are unambiguous and easy to interpret.
b. The practitioner can remain hidden from organizational members.
c. They are useful when the practitioner is short on time.
d. The practitioner can see examples of a problem first hand.
Q:
Surveys tend to be:
a. Inflexible
b. The easiest of all the data gathering methods to analyze
c. Best for getting buy-in from the client
d. Good for exploring a small range of issues in depth
Q:
Which of the following is a good tip for successful administration of surveys as a data gathering technique?
a. The survey should use as many open ended questions as possible to gather the most detail.
b. Surveys need to clarify ambiguous terms such as "head office" or "work group."
c. Survey analysis should use detailed statistical techniques to show the client the interesting things that can be done with the data.
d. Surveys should require respondent names in order to follow up with them afterwards.
Q:
To manage an interview well, the consultant should:
a. Build the confidence of the interviewee with statements such as "I agree" and "Very nice point."
b. Never stray from the prepared list of questions.
c. Establish rapport and begin with a personal introduction to put the interviewee at ease.
d. Avoid eye contact and write down as many exact quotes as possible.
Q:
One advantage of doing interviews is that:
a. A large number of people can be contacted in a short period of time.
b. Important issues can be explored in depth.
c. They are quick and easy to accomplish.
d. Analysis is faster than other methods.
Q:
It is unethical to decline an engagement that you think will not be successful because the client is not motivated to change.
a. True
b. False
Q:
If a client wants to exclude certain organizational members from the engagement because they are likely to make him/her look bad, the consultant should consider this an _____ practice of _____.
a. ethical; contracting
b. unethical; collusion
c. ideal; data gathering
d. unethical; breach of confidentiality
Q:
One ethical challenge that can occur in the contracting stage is:
a. The consultant misrepresents his or her qualifications to take on the project.
b. The consultant asks too many questions.
c. The consultant brings up the topic of his/her role or needs.
d. The consultant fails to issue a guarantee that he/she can fix the problem.
Q:
During the contracting meeting, it is important for the OD practitioner to:
a. Listen actively and carefully and let clients have the opportunity to express themselves
b. Be direct, asking questions such as "Why haven't you done something about this sooner?"
c. Spend most of the time describing past successes dealing with similar problems for similar clients
d. Fully describe one's resume and educational background
Q:
Most clients will describe ____ problems, but the goal of the OD practitioner is to discover the ____ problems.
a. personal; ambiguous
b. underlying; relationship
c. presenting; underlying
d. deep structure; symptomatic
Q:
"Going native," or becoming so close to the organization that the consultant is blind to some of the issues is one _______ of being an _________ consultant.
a. advantage; internal
b. disadvantage; internal
c. advantage; external
d. disadvantage; external
Q:
One reason why the doctor-patient model of consulting is flawed is that:
a. It puts the consultant in the role of making the diagnosis without client buy in.
b. Responsibility for implementation rests with the consultant.
c. Clients have the responsibility of doing all data gathering.
d. Few consultants have medical degrees.
Q:
Brent has hired an OD consultant to understand why the company's process for paying invoices is so slow. He wants the consultant to manage the project from start to finish, and does not have any time for data gathering or participating in diagnosis himself. According to the different models of consulting we discussed, Brent is operating with which inaccurate model of OD in mind?
a. Expert model of consulting
b. Doctor-Patient model of consulting
c. Mechanic model of consulting
d. Process model of consulting
Q:
Which model of organizational change characterizes the organization as a set of inputs, processes and outputs?a. Systems theoryb. Social constructionc. Complex adaptive systems theoryd. Feedback theory
Q:
Social construction approaches to change assume that change happens when:
a. The environmental factors promoting change are greater than the organization can resist.
b. There is a change in meaning, interpretation, and language use in the organization.
c. The organization has a change in vision or mission.
d. Systems, policies, and procedures also change.
Q:
Force field analysis assumes that change will happen when:
a. Leaders exert influence (or "force") over followers.
b. The organization is congruent with environmental forces.
c. The boxes are held in balance by the six different forces described in the model.
d. Forces promoting change are greater than forces promoting the status quo.
Q:
"People support what they help create" is a good summary of the OD value of:
a. Groups and teams
b. Participation and Involvement
c. Authenticity and trust
d. Growth, development and learning
Q:
A commitment to OD values means that practitioners direct attention toward humanistic values that respect people and as a result, do not focus on business goals of efficiency and effectiveness.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Which of the following is an INACCURATE statement of OD values?
a. Encouraging participation in organizational decisions.
b. Seeing people as "in process."
c. Suppressing negativity, anger, and conflict.
d. Seeking authenticity and openness.
Q:
"Group members, if they were confronted more or less objectively with data concerning their own behavior…might achieve highly meaningful learnings about themselves" is the lesson from which of the following historical OD practices?
a. Organizational learning theory
b. Employee engagement studies
c. Quality circles
d. T-groups
Q:
The "second generation" shift in OD came about when:
a. OD started to pay attention to the psychological needs of individuals.
b. OD recognized the importance of management and leadership practices.
c. OD began to look at systemic, systemwide concerns.
d. A new generation of OD practitioners took over after founding scholars retired.
Q:
The major finding described by Herzberg's motivation-hygiene theory was that:
a. People were more often dissatisfied by the lack of promotions than any other dissatisfier.
b. What people find dissatisfying at work was not usually associated with the job, but conditions surrounding the job.
c. Those with greater benefits and job security were the most motivated.
d. Good environmental conditions at the job are associated with greater job satisfaction than factors related to the work itself.
Q:
Which of the following theories was influenced by studies and observations of Japanese management styles, which began to be adopted in the U.S. in the 1970s and 1980s?
a. Theory X
b. Theory Y
c. Theory Z
d. Managerial Grid
Q:
Which of the following is an accurate assumption of Theory Y?
a. The average human being prefers to be directed and has little ambition.
b. In contemporary organizations, most people's capabilities are only partially utilized.
c. Most people dislike and will avoid hard work.
d. Maximum productivity comes when employees fear getting fired if they do not perform.
Q:
Today, the widespread use of employee surveys can be traced back to work in the 1940s and 1950s at Detroit Edison.
a. True
b. False
Q:
What was the significance of the survey feedback project at Detroit Edison that affects OD practice today?
a. It showed that when employees are surveyed multiple times, fewer employees complete the survey each time.
b. It resulted in the implementation of the first quality circles.
c. It was the first time that an online survey had been implemented.
d. It showed that groups that took action based on survey results saw a positive change in later feedback from employees.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT an accurate description of OD?
a. OD deals primarily with urgent, rapid, short-term changes.
b. OD is a different kind of consulting than management consulting.
c. OD involves multiple targets of change such as those involving individuals, teams, and whole organizations.
d. OD is more than learning a set of generic tools that we can apply to every situation.
Q:
It is a good idea for an entrepreneur to develop a network of trusted friends and advisors to help with problems and decisions.
Q:
Saving money by avoiding the expense of professional advice, such as legal and accounting, is often a mistake for entrepreneurs.
Q:
Because entrepreneurship is so time-consuming and energy-consuming, many entrepreneurs have trouble in their personal lives.
Q:
Selling an entrepreneurial venture is always a sign of failure.
Q:
The first step in managing a downturn in an entrepreneurial business is to recognize that things are not going well.
Q:
One of the keys that distinguishes an entrepreneurial organization from a conventional organization is the concerted emphasis on growth.
Q:
A command-and-control leadership style works best with an entrepreneurial organization that is organized in teams.
Q:
Nonvisionary entrepreneurial leaders usually outperform visionary entrepreneurial leaders.
Q:
The leader of an entrepreneurial organization is like a marching band leader because he or she controls every note that his or her "musicians" play.
Q:
Employee empowerment has little effect on an organization's profits or productivity.
Q:
A good way to ease into employee empowerment is to let employees share in decision making.
Q:
Employee empowerment increases productivity, but decreases employee motivation.
Q:
Identifying opportunity is not a trait of a person with a proactive personality.
Q:
Q:
The more proactive you are, the more likely you are to be an entrepreneur.
Q:
In a short essay, describe how an entrepreneur who is reluctant to empower employees might go about the process.
Q:
You would expect an entrepreneur who has a grand vision for the future to be more of a risk taker than an entrepreneur who is using his or her venture simply as a source of income.
Q:
In a short essay, describe a good way for an entrepreneur to motivate his or her employees.
Q:
People with proactive personalities tend to react to their environment more than trying to change their environment.
Q:
Q:
The classic "entrepreneurial personality" is a person who is high in self-confidence, motivation, and energy.
Q:
In a short essay, explain what a proactive personality is and what its connection is to entrepreneurship.
Q:
When hiring, entrepreneurs typically are much less concerned with matching a candidate's values to the organization's organizational culture than traditional HRM managers.
Q:
Q:
Since they are often overwhelmed by the pressure of decisions, one chore that most entrepreneurs never hesitate to delegate is decision making.
Q:
In a short essay, describe the factors that determine whether an entrepreneurial venture will be mechanistic or organic in structure.
Q:
An entrepreneurial venture that sees its competitive advantage in cost efficiency would tend to adopt an organic style organizational structure.
Q:
Q:
When they first start out, most small entrepreneurial ventures have a very informal organizational structure.
Q:
Q:
If the legal structure of an entrepreneurial venture does not turn out to be ideal, it can always be changed easily once the organization is up and running.
Q:
In a short essay, describe the steps an entrepreneur typically takes in planning and organizing an entrepreneurial venture.
Q:
The two primary factors that affect the legal structure of an entrepreneurial organization are taxes and legal liability.
Q:
In a short essay, describe the steps an entrepreneur typically takes in deciding whether to begin an entrepreneurial venture.
Q:
Since it is impossible to predict the future, projected income estimates are not part of a good business plan.
Q:
Q:
An entrepreneurial venture's advertising strategy would be included in the description of the business section of a full business plan.
Q:
Q:
A context analysis sizes up the target market and evaluates possible competitors to the company.