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Q:
The assignment method of job sequencing is a special case of the transportation method of linear programming.
Q:
The objective of Johnson's rule for job sequencing is to minimize flow time from the beginning of the first job until the completion of the last job.
Q:
Johnson's rule, a priority rule used in sequencing production jobs is used only in production situations where we are dealing with one machine or one stage of production activity.
Q:
The LCFS and Johnson's priority rules are basically the same except LCFS uses due dates as a major determiner of job sequence.
Q:
Under the STR/OP sequencing priority rule, orders with the jobs with the longest STR/OP are run first.
Q:
Using the random order or "whim" priority rule to sequence production jobs means that supervisors select whichever job they feel like running first.
Q:
The FCFS priority rule used in sequencing production jobs will always result in a better solution than the LCFS rule.
Q:
Priority rules are the rules used to obtain a job sequence in production scheduling.
Q:
In production scheduling the process of determining which job to start first on some machine or in some work center is known as sequencing or priority sequencing.
Q:
Shop-floor control (or production activity control) can involve expediting late and critical orders.
Q:
Shop-floor control (or production activity control) can involve reviewing the status and controlling the progress of orders as they are being worked on.
Q:
Initiating performance of scheduled work is commonly termed "dispatching" of orders.
Q:
Theoretically, all schedules are feasible when finite loading is used.
Q:
In infinite loading no consideration is given directly to whether there is sufficient capacity at the resources required to complete the work, nor is the actual sequence of the work as done by each resource in the work center considered.
Q:
In finite loading no consideration is given directly to whether there is sufficient capacity at the resources required to complete the work, nor is the actual sequence of the work as done by each resource in the work center considered.
Q:
A backward schedule tells when an order must be started in order to be done by a specific date.
Q:
A system that "backward schedules" is designed to determine and report the earliest date an order can be completed.
Q:
A work center is a physical area of the business in which productive resources are organized and work is completed.
Q:
The textbook underscores the importance of scheduling with the phrase "workflow equals cash flow and scheduling lies at the heart of the process".
Q:
What is the difference between finite and infinite loading?
Q:
Distinguish between forward scheduling and backward scheduling?
Q:
What is Johnson's Rule?
Q:
What is dispatching?
Q:
In the context of work assignment, what is infinite loading?
Q:
What is sub-optimization in scheduling? .
Q:
A work center has five jobs assigned to it. They are labeled, in the order of their arrival in the shop, as jobs A, B, C, D and E. The work center may work on only one job at a time and must complete any job it starts before starting another job. Job A has a processing time of 6 days and is due to the customer in 9 days. Job B has a processing time of 2 days and is due in 16 days. Job C has a processing time of 4 days and is due in 10 days. Job D has a processing time of 3 days and is due in 7 days. Job E has a processing time of 5 days and is due in 12 days. Using the slack time remaining priority rule, in what order should these jobs be undertaken?
Q:
A work center has five jobs assigned to it. They are labeled, in the order of their arrival in the shop, as jobs A, B, C, D and E. The work center may work on only one job at a time and must complete any job it starts before starting another job. Job A has a processing time of 6 days and is due to the customer in 9 days. Job B has a processing time of 2 days and is due in 16 days. Job C has a processing time of 4 days and is due in 10 days. Job D has a processing time of 3 days and is due in 7 days. Job E has a processing time of 5 days and is due in 12 days. Using the shortest operating time priority rule, in what order should these jobs be undertaken?
B-D-C-E-A
Q:
Which priority rule is so powerful that it has been called "the most important concept in the entire aspect of sequencing"?
Q:
A machine shop has two machines, A and B. Four jobs need to be processed through machine A first and B second. Job 1 will take one hour on machine A and three hours on machine B. Job 2 will take three hours on A and two hours on B. Job 3, seven on A and three on B. Job 4, five hours on A and one hour on B. Using Johnson's rule, in what order should these jobs be done?
Q:
Which of the following is a principle of work center scheduling?
A. Once started a job can and should be finished even if unavoidably interrupted
B. Reschedule every day
C. Achieve certainty in standards and routings
D. Give work centers less to do then their maximum
E. Assign the first worker to all of the days that require staffing
Q:
Explain why "freezing the master schedule" is not the same as reducing the Level of service to customers.
Q:
How does flow manufacturing differ from using MRP alone?
Q:
Discuss the importance of inventory record accuracy to an MRP system?
Q:
Demand in for an item located in Level 3 of a product structure tree depends on demand for an item in the next higher Level. What is that Level called?
Q:
What are the three main inputs to an MRP program?
Q:
If annual demand is 1,000 units, annual holding cost is $0.50 per unit and the cost per order is $10, what is the EOQ?
Q:
What is the planned-order release using an MRP program if the gross requirement is 1,600 and the inventory on hand is 600?
Q:
What does it mean when a super bill of materials specifies half of a component part in an assembly?
Q:
What is the name given to the manufacturing software that combines MRP and JIT logic?
Q:
What is the main difference between MRP and closed loop MRP?
Q:
In MRP, how is demand information for a Level 0 (zero) item derived?
Q:
What is the name for a bill of materials that includes items with fractional options?
Q:
What is the name for demand caused by the demand for a higher Level item?
Q:
Which of the following is a dynamic lot-sizing technique that adds ordering and inventory carrying cost for each trial lot size and divides by the number of units in each lot size, picking the lot size with the lowest unit cost?
A. Economic order quantity
B. Lot-for-lot
C. Least total cost
D. Least unit cost
E. Inventory averaging
Q:
Which of the following is a dynamic lot-sizing technique that calculates the order quantity by comparing the carrying cost and the setup (or ordering) costs for various lot sizes and then selects the lot size in which these are most nearly equal?
A. Kanban
B. Two-bin system
C. MRP II
D. Least unit cost
E. Least total cost
Q:
Which of the following is a dynamic lot-sizing technique that calculates the order quantity by comparing the carrying cost and the setup (or ordering) costs for various lot sizes and then selects the lot in which these are most nearly equal?
A. Economic Order Quantity
B. Lot for lot
C. Least total cost
D. Least unit cost
E. ABC analysis
Q:
If annual demand is 12,000 units, annual holding cost is $15 per unit and setup cost per order is $25, which of the following is the EOQ lot size?
A. 2,000
B. 1,200
C. 1,000
D. 300
E. 200
Q:
If annual demand is 6,125 units, annual holding cost is $5 per unit and setup cost per order is $50, which of the following is the EOQ lot size?
A. 350
B. 247
C. 230
D. 185
E. 78
Q:
Under the lot-for-lot (L4L) lot sizing technique as used in MRP, we would expect which of the following?
A. A consistent lag of supply behind demand
B. Minimized carrying costs
C. Minimized set-up costs
D. A just in time management philosophy
E. Minimized quality problems
Q:
Which of the following is not a lot sizing technique used in MRP systems?
A. Lot-for-lot (L4L)
B. Economic order quantity (EOQ)
C. Least total cost (LTC)
D. Least unit cost (LUC)
E. Two-bin system (TBS)
Q:
Which of the following can be used for lot sizing in an MRP system?
A. Low-Level coding
B. Time buckets
C. Least unit cost
D. Inventory record files
E. Peg reports
Q:
Which of the following is the planned-order release using an MRP program if the gross requirement is 670 and the inventory on hand is 600?
A. 670
B. 600
C. 530
D. 70
E. None of the above
Q:
Which of the following is the planned-order release using an MRP program if the gross requirement is 5,000 and the inventory on hand is 1,200?
A. 5,000
B. 4,500
C. 3,800
D. 1,200
E. None of the above
Q:
Which of the following is the net requirement using an MRP program if the gross requirement is 1,000 and the inventory on hand is 500?
A. 1,000
B. 950
C. 500
D. 400
E. 350
Q:
Which of the following is the net requirement using an MRP program if the gross requirement is 1,250 and the inventory on hand is 50?
A. 1,200
B. 1,300
C. 1,150
D. 2,450
E. None of the above
Q:
Which of the following is considered a primary report in an MRP system?
A. Planned order schedule
B. Peg report
C. Planning report
D. Inventory accuracy report
E. Aggregate production plan report
Q:
Which of the following is considered a secondary report in an MRP system?
A. Planned order schedule
B. Performance reports
C. Inventory record
D. Firm orders from known customers
E. Engineering change reports
Q:
Which of the following is considered a primary report in an MRP system?
A. Planning reports
B. Performance reports
C. Exception reports
D. Planned order schedules
E. Cycle counting reports
Q:
In a typical inventory status record which of the following would you not expect to see?
A. Scrap allowance
B. Order quantity
C. Gross requirements
D. Planned-order releases
E. Lost items
Q:
We would expect to see which of the following in an MRP system's inventory transactions file?
A. End items produced
B. Late/early delivery records
C. Scrap parts
D. Labor efficiency
E. Computer errors
Q:
Which of the following files allows us to retrace a material requirement upward in the product structure through each Level, identifying each parent item that created the demand?
A. Planning bill of materials file
B. Modular bill of materials file
C. Super bill of materials file
D. Exception report file
E. Peg record file
Q:
In an MRP program, the program accesses the status of any file in specific periods called which of the following?
A. Cubed time units
B. Time buckets
C. BOM units
D. Modular time units
E. Time fences
Q:
Which of the following is not a production activity report generated by MRP?
A. Exception report
B. Planning report
C. Performance control report
D. Planned-order schedules
E. Bill of materials report
Q:
Which of the following is an input file necessary to run an MRP system?
A. Exception report
B. Computer-aided-design files
C. Inventory records file
D. Personnel files
E. Time fence file
Q:
Which of the following is an input file necessary to run an MRP system?
A. Bill of materials (BOM) file
B. Quality management report
C. Exception reports
D. Planned-order schedules
E. Purchasing contracts
Q:
Which of the following is an input to the master production schedule?
A. Bill of materials (BOM) file
B. Inventory records file
C. Exception reports
D. Planned-order schedules
E. None of the above
Q:
Which of the following is an input to the master production schedule?
A. Prototype products from product development
B. Aggregate component schedule
C. Peg records
D. Exception reports
E. Forecasts of demand from random customers
Q:
Which of the following is a major reason that some MRP systems fail?
A. Lack of top management understanding and commitment
B. Failure to properly install the MRP software
C. Using an underpowered computer
D. Technical incompetence in manufacturing
E. Vendors or customers using JIT systems
Q:
Which of the following is a capability of MRP systems that improves operations planning and control?
A. MRP indicates when to de-expedite as well as expedite orders
B. MRP systems consume many reams of paper thereby justifying quantity purchases
C. Once entered; a production order can't be changed, enforcing discipline on sales
D. MRP can anticipate returns of defective product
E. MRP allows manufacturing to operate in a pure, isolated environment
Q:
An improvement noted by many firms after implementation of MRP is which of the following?
A. Increased idle time
B. Quicker setup times
C. Inability to change the master schedule
D. Reduced inventory
E. Improved product design-for-manufacture
Q:
An improvement noted by many firms after implementation of MRP is which of the following?
A. Increased prices
B. Increased inventory
C. Improved customer service
D. Reduced raw materials cost
E. Enhanced employee relations
Q:
Objectives of inventory management under an MRP system include which of the following?
A. Improve customer service
B. Reduce the cost of capital
C. Calibrate operating efficiencies
D. Minimize lot sizes
E. Reduce inventory to zero
Q:
MRP systems seek to achieve which of the following?
A. Minimize lot sizes
B. Determine the number of dependent demand items needed
C. Give immediate capacity relief
D. Provide a yardstick for future improvements
E. Improve on JIT methods
Q:
Which of the following is most closely related to the reason a firm might implement MRP?
A. So they can order the right parts
B. So they can order parts sufficient for immediate use
C. So they can insure that parts to arrive prior to when they are needed
D. To assure appropriate quality Levels
E. To keep process costs between the LCL and the UCL
Q:
One of the main purposes of a MRP system is which of the following?
A. Track inventory Levels
B. Create productive capacity
C. Decrease layers of management
D. Develop schedules for when each component should be produced
E. Upgrade manufacturing's professionalism
Q:
Which of the following is one of the main purposes of a MRP system?
A. Educate personnel in basic work rules
B. To determine time schedules for material procurement
C. Stimulate the work force
D. Decrease labor requirements
E. Increase inventory accuracy
Q:
Which of the following is an input to the master production schedule (MPS)?
A. Inventory records file
B. The aggregate plan
C. The bill of materials
D. The exception report
E. Planned order schedules
Q:
Which of the following is a time fence operating mode?
A. Frozen
B. Moderately soft
C. Inflexible
D. Delayed
E. Quality control hold
Q:
To ensure good master scheduling, the master scheduler should do which of the following?
A. Continually rework the aggregate plan
B. Be involved with customer order promising
C. Be invisible to management
D. Cover-up all problems
E. Focus on getting out product before it is needed
Q:
A product structure tree can do which of the following?
A. Help to compute component usage
B. Reduce product scrap
C. Reduce labor overtime
D. Reduce regular time labor
E. Locate raw material supplies