Q&A Hero

Q: Which of the following techniques of managing conflict involves working out the differences between managers and employees? A) resolving B) averting C) compromising D) avoiding E) forcing

Q: Identify a major advantage of using forcing technique to resolve conflicts. A) Forcing is a fast method for implementing critical changes. B) It is considered the best strategy to handle complex conflicts. C) It can have a win-win orientation if the manager is skillful. D) Forcing is the best strategy when the planned change is relatively minor. E) The solution obtained will be acceptable to majority of employees.

Q: Which of the following conflict management techniques is best suited to make an emergency change in an organization? A) resolving B) compromising C) negotiating D) avoiding E) forcing

Q: ________ is a technique for managing conflict in which managers use their authority to resolve conflicts. A) Resolving B) Compromising C) Negotiating D) Avoiding E) Forcing

Q: A manager wants to implement some changes in the working hours of employees. Two groups of workers oppose this decision and have contrasting opinions. The manager feels arriving at a solution that will be acceptable to both parties is impossible. Which of the following strategies is best suited to handle this conflict? A) forcing B) deflecting C) avoiding D) resolving E) compromising

Q: The sales manager of a company finds that the personnel in the human resources department are a continual source of conflict because they are inflexible and resist proposed changes. As a result of this, the manager ignores their views when he has to make changes. This strategy could be appropriate when ________. A) the planned change is relatively critical to the organization B) the change has strategic impacts on the employees C) a win-win solution is essential to the organization D) the HR department is powerful and crucial to the organization E) the potential conflict will not limit organizational goal attainment

Q: The avoiding technique is generally appropriate when ________. A) the planned change is extensive and time is limited B) an emergency change has to be made in the organization C) a win-win solution is essential to the organization. D) the parties involved in the conflict are powerful E) the potential conflict will not limit organizational goal attainment

Q: ________ is a conflict management technique where managers simply ignore the conflict. A) Resolving B) Compromising C) Cooperating D) Avoiding E) Conciliating

Q: Identify a situation where compromising is highly appropriate. A) The planned change is relatively minor and time is limited. B) Management feels that all conflict is bad. C) Employee opinions are vastly diverse and complex. D) Management has to implement an emergency change. E) Management wants to arrive at a win-win solution.

Q: Which of the following is a key characteristic of the compromising strategy used to resolve conflicts? A) a solution acceptable to all parties B) low involvement of managers and supervisors C) strong win-win orientation D) use of legitimate power and authority E) complex procedures for decision making

Q: Which of the following is a conflict resolution strategy where parties to the conflict settle on a solution that gives both of them part of what they wanted? A) compromising B) negotiating C) avoiding D) resolving E) adjudication

Q: ________ is defined as the struggle that results from opposing needs or feelings between two or more people. A) Change B) Apathy C) Conflict D) Stress E) Avoidance

Q: Which of the following strategies is likely to be most useful in reducing organizational stress? A) increasing power distance in the organization B) promoting employees based on objective criteria such as years of experience C) modifying the basic values of organizational culture D) making the organizational environment more informal E) establishing vertical decision making procedures

Q: Employees often experience considerable stress when they do not know what the next step in their professional lives might be or when they might take it. Which of the following could be the best solution to this problem? A) creating standardized jobs and defining procedures B) designing and operating career counseling programs C) promoting creativity and innovation at the work place D) modifying the basic norms of organizational culture E) making the organizational climate more formal

Q: Workplace bullying refers to ________. A) individuals being isolated or excluded socially and having work efforts devalued B) keeping employee salaries and benefits much below industry standards C) promoting organizational conflicts and in-fights to increase performance D) hiring more employees than what is required to run the business E) recruiting employees who are incapable or under-qualified to perform certain jobs

Q: A stressor is a(n) ________ that causes people to feel stress. A) environmental demand B) psychological condition C) internal feeling D) emotional response E) disturbing reflection

Q: Which of the following is an observable symptom of undesirably high stress levels? A) low to moderate levels of anxiety B) higher energy levels C) reduced work hours D) working without many breaks E) increased aggression

Q: From a worker-performance standpoint, stress is most favorable when ________. A) stress levels are extremely high B) stress levels are extremely low C) related stressors are temporary D) stress levels are associated with increased aggression E) stress levels are neither too high nor too low

Q: The bodily strain that an individual experiences as a result of coping with some environmental factor is called ________. A) stress B) conflict C) anger D) aggression E) denial

Q: When organization members remain oriented more to the past than the future in spite of the changes already initiated ________. A) the situation calls for more changes in the organization B) the existing status quo should be maintained C) the organization is highly likely to achieve its goals without further changes D) the members are highly committed toward the long-term goals of the organization E) the organization has a strong culture

Q: Which of the following is a common reason behind employee resistance to change? A) Most individuals are open to experience. B) Individuals fear some type of personal loss. C) Most changes involve changes in organizational hierarchy. D) Faith in the status-quo is limited. E) Most organizations maintain high power distance.

Q: An organization decides to implement a supply chain management system to increase the efficiency of its operations. A group of employees resist the implementation. Which of the following could be the most probable reason for their resistance? A) The change would increase the productivity as well as responsibility of most members of the group. B) The group fears that the implementation would adversely affect their role in the organization. C) Implementation of a supply chain management system would lead to a change in organizational hierarchy D) Implementation of supply chain management system often leads to blockage of crucial information. E) Supply chain management system cannot be used to manage the internal operations of a company.

Q: Albert believes adequate organizational performance is possible by balancing the need to get good quality work done on the one hand and addressing the needs of his employees on the other. What score in the managerial grid is most closely associated with Albert's managerial style? A) 1,1 B) 5,5 C) 1,9 D) 9,1 E) 9,9

Q: Robert, the operations manager of a manufacturing company, gives adequate attention to the needs of his employees and maintains a friendly organizational atmosphere. However, he is often criticized for not meeting the performance goals and poor quality of products. Robert's managerial style is likely to be associated with what score in the managerial grid? A) 9,9 B) 1,1 C) 9,1 D) 1,9 E) 5,5

Q: What does a managerial grid score of 9,1 indicate? A) The manager is effective in satisfying relationships and is less concerned about production. B) The manager is highly concerned about production though he ignores the people aspects of work. C) The manager maintains a balance between the necessity to perform work and employee morale. D) The manager derives superior performance from employees who are highly dedicated. E) The manager is neither effective in maintaining relations nor in effectively maintaining production.

Q: What score in the managerial grid is associated with ideal managerial style? A) 9,9 B) 1,1 C) 9,1 D) 1,9 E) 5,5

Q: Which of the following styles of management involves exertion of minimum effort to get the required work done? A) 9,9 B) 9,1 C) 5,5 D) 1,1 E) 1,9

Q: Grid organization development technique is commonly used for ________. A) changing people in organizations B) designing structural changes C) evaluating structural changes D) evaluating technical changes E) changing business processes

Q: Which of the following terms refers to the process of people change? A) organizational planning B) organizational communication C) institutional design D) resource mobilization E) organization development

Q: The managerial grid proposes that various managerial styles can be described by a manager's concern for ________. A) quantity and quality B) production and people C) power and acceptance D) profit maximization and revenue maximization E) customers and company

Q: Which of the following is a type of organizational change that emphasizes modifying certain aspects of organization members to increase organizational effectiveness ? A) people change B) structural change C) administrative change D) managerial change E) behavioral change

Q: A structural change ________. A) works by changing controls that influence organization members B) ensures appropriate functioning of technology C) develops the skills of the people D) increases the division of labor E) makes the change appealing to employees

Q: The CEO of a company decides to introduce decentralization to help the organization exercise greater control over its subunits and increase employee motivation. This is an example of a ________ change. A) people B) administrative C) technological D) managerial E) structural

Q: Clarifying and redefining jobs within an organization is an example of a(n) ________ change. A) technological B) people C) structural D) essential E) administrative

Q: ________ changes emphasize increasing organizational effectiveness by changing controls that influence organization members during the performance of their jobs A) Technological B) People C) Structural D) Managerial E) Administrative

Q: Attitudes, leadership skills, and communication skills are ________. A) structural factors B) technological factors C) communication factors D) people factors E) informative factors

Q: Value Innovations Inc. engages in selling computers and other electronic components through telephone and Web orders. The company decides to change the existing policies and procedures to fit the communication needs of the organization. This is an example of a(n) ________ change. A) administrative B) people C) managerial D) structural E) technological

Q: Which of the following is an example of a structural factor that determines organizational effectiveness? A) technologies B) leadership skills C) employee attitudes D) work procedures E) equipments

Q: Value Innovations Inc. engages in selling computers and other electronic components through telephone and Web orders. The company has decided to change some of its policies. When recruiting employees, it will now focus primarily on the attitudes of individuals. Here, the company is concentrating on a(n) ________ factor. A) structural B) technological C) communication D) people E) informative

Q: Organizational effectiveness depends primarily on activities centering around three classes of factors. The factors are ________. A) data orientation, people, and technology B) people, structure, and visibility C) people, technology, and structure D) structure, procedures, and people E) structure, technology, and money

Q: Which of the following combinations of stability and adaptation is associated with the probability of a slow death of the organization? A) high adaptation and stability B) low adaptation and stability C) high adaptation and low stability D) moderate adaptation and high stability E) high stability and low adaptation

Q: Alterx Technologies International Inc., a technology solutions company, provides managed technology solutions to small and medium sized businesses. The company is planning to bring about substantial changes in its operations. However, the company understands some degree of stability is also a prerequisite for long-term organizational success. Which of the following combinations of adaptability and stability will provide Alterx the highest probability of growth and survival? A) high stability and low adaptability B) high stability and high adaptability C) low stability and high adaptability D) moderate stability and moderate adaptability E) low stability and moderate adaptability

Q: Hellriegel and Slocum's model shows the relative importance of ________ to organizational survival. A) external and internal environments B) change and stability C) innovation and conservativeness D) trust and vigilance E) change and risk taking ability

Q: What is performance appraisal? What are the different methods used to conduct performance appraisals?

Q: What is the role of "training" in providing appropriate human resources to an organization?

Q: What are the different types of tests used by organizations during the selection process?

Q: Briefly describe the role of the selection process in providing appropriate human resources to an organization.

Q: What are the various sources of human resources available to recruiters outside an organization?

Q: What is the "human resource inventory"? What are the different human resource inventory records maintained by an organization?

Q: Give a brief description of the sources of human resources inside an organization.

Q: Describe the need for modern recruiters to know the job they are recruiting for and source of human resources.

Q: Write a short note on the process of recruitment and its importance.

Q: Describe the term "appropriate human resources." What is the role of appropriate human resources in an organization?

Q: Which of the following is a disadvantage of using performance appraisals? A) Performance appraisals do not provide judgments systematic enough to support salary increases, promotions, or transfers. B) Individuals involved in performance appraisals view them as a rewardpunishment situation. C) Performance appraisals place undue emphasis on critiquing individual performance rather than increasing organizational productivity and completing paperwork. D) Performance appraisals focus employees on the long-run success of the organization, rather than individual rewards, which affects employee morale negatively. E) Performance appraisals are not effective at telling subordinates how they are doing and of suggesting needed changes in behavior, attitudes, skills, or job knowledge.

Q: Which of the following statements is true of performance appraisals? A) Performance and organizational objectives should be discussed separately during performance appraisals. B) Performance appraisals should ideally reflect the evaluator's impression of the employee's work habits. C) The goal of performance appraisals is to subjectively analyze an individual's habits, rather than objectively evaluating the employee's performance. D) Performance appraisals should provide a base for improving individuals' productivity within the organization by making them better equipped to produce. E) Performance appraisals should be sufficiently acceptable to the evaluator to be effective in achieving objectives.

Q: In which of the following performance appraisal methods do appraisers write down particularly good or bad events involving employees as these events occur and evaluate each employee's performance using their respective records of all documented events? A) forced ranking B) free-form essay C) forced distribution D) critical-form essay E) employee comparisons

Q: Which of the following performance appraisal methods requires appraisers to simply write down their impressions of employees in paragraph form? A) forced ranking B) rating scale C) free-form essay D) forced distribution E) critical-form essay

Q: ________ is a performance appraisal method in which appraisers rank employees according to factors such as job performance and value to organization, with each ranking being held exclusively by an employee. A) Rating scale B) Forced distribution C) Likert scale D) Semantic differential E) Rasch model

Q: ________ is a performance appraisal method in which individuals appraising performance rank several employee qualities and characteristics on a continuum, on a form that lists such factors. A) Free-form essay B) Forced ranking C) Critical-form essay D) Rating scale E) Forced distribution

Q: The main purpose of performance appraisal is to ________. A) keep management up to date about the possibilities for filling a position from within B) refine work methods, reduce production costs, and increase the level of organizational diversity C) furnish feedback to organization members about how they can become more productive and useful to the organization in its quest for quality D) eliminate barriers and increase opportunities for the purpose of increasing the utilization of underutilized and/or disadvantaged individuals E) narrow a large field of prospective employees to a relatively small group of individuals from which someone eventually will be hired

Q: The process of reviewing individuals' past productive activity to evaluate the contribution they have made toward attaining management system objectives is known as ________. A) job analysis B) workforce profiling C) performance appraisal D) employee audit E) workplace turnover

Q: Answers to which of the following questions help determine the effectiveness of a training program? A) Are deadlines being met more regularly? B) What skills do employees need to improve their performance? C) Should the training program follow a lecture approach? D) How much time and money must be invested in training employees? E) Should on-the-job training be preferred over classroom training techniques?

Q: Which of the following characteristics can be attributed to classroom training techniques in contrast to lectures? A) lack of opportunity for attitudinal or behavioral change in trainees B) learning through listening and note-taking C) maximum amount of information transmission to trainees in limited amount of time D) inability to handle wide diversity of ability, attitude, and interest among trainees E) high levels of discussion and interaction among trainees

Q: Which of the following classroom training techniques typically involves trainees acting out and then reflecting on some people-oriented problem that must be solved in the organization? A) position rotation B) jigsaw format C) management games D) role-playing format E) conceptual clustering

Q: The most common format for ________, a classroom training technique for skill development, requires small groups of trainees to make and then evaluate various management decisions. A) position rotation B) coaching C) role-playing D) special project review E) management games

Q: ________ are on-the-job training vehicles for assigning a particular task to an individual to furnish him or her with experience in a designated area. A) Virtual teams B) Cross-functional teams C) Special project committees D) Geographically-dispersed teams E) New product committees

Q: ________ is an on-the-job training technique that involves moving an individual from job to job to enable the person to gain an understanding of the organization as a whole. A) Position rotation B) Declarative learning C) Coaching D) Overlearning E) Sequence learning

Q: ________ is an on-the-job training technique that involves direct critiquing of how well an individual is performing a job. A) Programmed learning B) Coaching C) Lecturing D) Overlearning E) Position rotation

Q: Which of the following is a disadvantage of programmed learning as a training method? A) Programmed learning methods do not lend themselves easily to computerization. B) The limited time period of programmed learning modules are disadvantageous to students who prefer to learn at their own pace. C) Programmed learning approaches are not conducive for encouraging students' active participation in the learning process. D) With programmed learning, there is no one present to answer a confused learner's questions. E) Students using programmed learning approaches are often confused as they cannot immediately know whether they are right or wrong.

Q: Which of the following is an advantage of using a programmed learning approach for training employees? A) The costs of a programmed learning approach are practically nonexistent as training is delivered through computer programs. B) One-on-one interaction with mentors and trainers fosters a co-learning atmosphere in the organization. C) Employees get a first-hand experience of their job demands as they learn skills by performing them. D) Employees are able to learn at their own pace, picking up information piece-by-piece. E) Programmed learning allows instructors to expose trainees to a maximum amount of information within a given time period.

Q: ________ is a training technique for instructing without the presence or intervention of a human instructor. A) Experiential learning B) Programmed learning C) On-the-job training D) Active learning E) Overlearning

Q: Which of the following statements is true of lectures as a training method? A) Lectures involve even exchange of information between instructors and trainees by way of discussions and debates. B) Lectures are disadvantaged by their inability to expose trainees to a substantial amount of information within a given time period. C) The nature of the lecture situation makes it of minimal value in promoting attitudinal or behavioral change. D) Instructors can handle the wide diversity of ability, attitude, and interest that may prevail among the trainees by way of lectures. E) A lecture format provides opportunities for practice, reinforcement, knowledge of results, and overlearning.

Q: Which of the following is an advantage of lectures as a training method? A) Lectures are extremely helpful in promoting attitudinal and behavioral changes among trainees. B) Lectures provide ample opportunity to check on whether trainees really understand the training material. C) Lectures allow instructors to expose trainees to a maximum amount of information within a given time period. D) Lectures are ideal training methods for handling the wide diversity of ability, attitude, and interest that prevails among trainees. E) Lectures facilitate opportunities for practice, reinforcement, knowledge of results, and overlearning.

Q: A(n) ________ is primarily a one-way communication situation in which an instructor orally presents information to a group of listeners. A) group discussion B) lecture C) student debate D) learning cell E) symposium

Q: ________ refer(s) to the information or skill areas of an individual or group that require further development to increase the productivity of that individual or group. A) Training needs B) Professional maturity C) Self-actualization needs D) Vocational interest E) Growth potential

Q: The first step of the training process is ________. A) designing the training program B) administering the training program C) determining the training needs D) evaluating the training program E) standardizing the training program

Q: The purpose of training is to ________. A) increase the productivity of employees by influencing their behavior B) furnish feedback to organization members about how they can become more productive and useful to the organization in its quest for quality C) eliminate barriers and increase opportunities for the purpose of increasing the utilization of underutilized and/or disadvantaged individuals D) narrow a large field of prospective employees to a relatively small group of individuals from which someone eventually will be hired E) refine work methods, reduce production costs, and increase the level of organizational diversity

Q: ________ is the process of developing qualities in human resources that will enable them to be more productive and thus contribute more to organizational goal attainment. A) Recruitment B) Training C) Selection D) Performance appraisal E) Induction

Q: A(n) ________ is a program in which participants engage in a number of individual and group exercises constructed to simulate important activities at the organizational levels to which they aspire. A) job analysis B) assessment center C) performance appraisal D) employment audit E) workforce plan

Q: Cal appears for a battery of tests as part of a selection process that aims to fill ten positions in a certain company. He fails to clear the tests the first time around and appears for them again after three months. Even though the test content was fairly consistent across both sets of tests, he manages to pass the tests the second time around. Which of the following characteristics is attributed to these tests? A) unreliable B) objective C) valid D) discriminatory E) unfair