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Q:
When tests are used as part of the selection process, care must be taken to ensure that the test being used is both valid and reliable. A test is valid if ________.
A) it measures what it is designed to measure
B) it can be used as the sole determinant of a hiring decision
C) it measures similarly time after time
D) it doesn't contain language or cultural biases that discriminate against minorities
E) it subjectively assesses candidates' potential and desire to obtain a position
Q:
When tests are used as part of the selection process, care must be taken to ensure that the test being used is both valid and reliable. A test is reliable if ________.
A) it measures what it is designed to measure
B) it can be used as the sole determinant of a hiring decision
C) it measures similarly time after time
D) it doesn't contain language or cultural biases that discriminate against minorities
E) it subjectively assesses candidates' potential and desire to obtain a position
Q:
________ attempt to measure an individual's interest in performing various kinds of jobs.
A) Aptitude-interest tests
B) Vocational interest tests
C) Intelligence tests
D) Personality tests
E) Functional interest tests
Q:
Which of the following is an example of an achievement test?
A) intelligence test
B) aptitude test
C) thematic apperception test
D) keyboarding test
E) visual skills test
Q:
Tests that measure the level of skill or knowledge an individual possesses in a certain area are called ________.
A) aptitude tests
B) vocational tests
C) achievement tests
D) intelligence tests
E) personality tests
Q:
Aptitude tests measure ________.
A) the level of skill or knowledge an individual possesses in a certain area
B) an individual's interest in performing various kinds of jobs
C) the potential of an individual to perform a task
D) an individual's personality dimensions in such areas as emotional maturity, subjectivity, honesty, and objectivity
E) an individual's response to stressful situations in order to assess his/her presence of mind
Q:
________ is examining human resources for qualities relevant to performing available jobs.
A) Selection
B) Orientation
C) Testing
D) Induction
E) Training
Q:
Which of the following actions is performed during the personal judgement stage of the selection process?
A) A candidate's personality aspects are determined.
B) A candidate's records and data sheets are screened for adequate educational and performance record.
C) A candidate is placed in an available position.
D) A candidate's innate ability and ambition are assessed.
E) A candidate's past performance records are reviewed.
Q:
An HR manager of one of the companies Sean interviews for tells him that he has been eliminated from the selection process as his professors rate him as lethargic and not dedicated on account of late project and assignment submissions. Sean was most likely at the ________ stage of the selection process when he was eliminated.
A) diagnostic interview
B) aptitude test
C) preliminary interview
D) performance references
E) intelligence test
Q:
Sean is in the final year of his graduate course in information technology. A host of companies have conducted campus recruitment programs at Sean's college. However, Sean has been eliminated from the selection process for every company at the preliminary interview stage. Which of the following reasons best explains Sean's elimination at the preliminary interview stage?
A) Sean has been scoring 40 points on average in his aptitude tests, the minimum score required being 60.
B) Sean displays a particularly conspicuous absence of ambition when asked about his career aspirations.
C) Sean's professors have mentioned his inability to meet project and assignment deadlines in their references.
D) Sean's physical fitness levels are unsatisfactory when compared to those of other students his own age.
E) Sean constantly turns up for interviews dressed very casually and appears uninterested.
Q:
Which of the following is a likely reason for the elimination of a candidate from the selection process at the preliminary interview stage?
A) negative aspects of personality
B) lack of physical fitness for the job
C) obvious misfit from outward conduct
D) lack of necessary innate ambition
E) unfavorable reports on past performance
Q:
A candidate is eliminated from the selection process for lacking the necessary innate ability, ambition, and other qualities required of the job. Which stage of the selection process was the candidate most likely at when he or she was eliminated?
A) preliminary interview
B) personality test
C) performance references
D) diagnostic interview
E) intelligence test
Q:
At which stage of the selection process is a candidate likely to be eliminated because of an inadequate educational and performance record?
A) personal judgement
B) personality tests
C) preliminary screening from data sheets, etc.
D) diagnostic interview
E) performance references
Q:
Which of the following processes involves choosing an individual to hire from all those who have been screened from the prospective human resources available to fill a position?
A) selection
B) training
C) recruitment
D) promotion
E) orientation
Q:
The basic purpose of affirmative action is to ________.
A) narrow a large field of prospective employees to a relatively small group of individuals from which someone eventually will be hired
B) eliminate barriers and increase opportunities for the purpose of increasing the utilization of underutilized and/or disadvantaged individuals
C) increase the productivity of employees by influencing their behavior
D) refine work methods, reduce production costs, and increase the level of organizational diversity
E) furnish feedback to organization members about how they can become more productive and useful to the organization in its quest for quality
Q:
Equal opportunity legislation protects the right of a citizen to work and obtain a fair wage based primarily on ________.
A) race
B) ethnicity
C) gender
D) disability
E) performance
Q:
Which of the following entities was created by the Civil Rights Act, passed in 1964 and amended in 1972, to enforce federal laws prohibiting discrimination on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, and national origin in recruitment, hiring, firing, layoffs, and all other employment practices?
A) American Equal Rights Association
B) United States Commission on Civil Rights
C) Federal Labor Relations Authority
D) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
E) National Labor Relations Board
Q:
________ is the process of outlining who will follow whom in various organizational positions.
A) Organizational restructuring
B) Succession planning
C) Forecasting
D) Headhunting
E) Scheduling
Q:
Which of the following functions does a position replacement form perform?
A) provides information about the organizational history of an individual
B) compares the merits of two individuals being considered for a position
C) determines who might be eligible to fill a vacant position
D) assesses the potential of an employee in the organization
E) advertises a vacant position in the organization and requests applications from qualified candidates
Q:
The ________ is a human resource inventory record that presents a composite view of the individuals management considers significant for human resource planning.
A) management inventory card
B) employment authorization document
C) job analysis chart
D) management manpower replacement chart
E) position replacement form
Q:
Which of the following human resource inventory records proposed by Walter S. Wikstrom contains an organizational history of an individual and an indication of how he or she might be used in the future?
A) management manpower replacement chart
B) employee payroll graph
C) position replacement form
D) organizational restructuring chart
E) management inventory card
Q:
Which of the following is an objective of a human resource inventory?
A) advertising a vacant organizational position in a publication whose readers are likely to be interested in filling the position
B) keeping management up to date about the possibilities for filling a position from within
C) eliminating barriers and increasing opportunities for the purpose of increasing the utilization of underutilized and/or disadvantaged individuals
D) selecting for an open position the individual who finds most aspects of that position interesting
E) increasing the productivity of employees by influencing their behavior
Q:
A(n) ________ consists of information about the characteristics of organization members.
A) job repository
B) employee payroll
C) job analysis
D) human resource inventory
E) curriculum vitae
Q:
Which of the following items is likely to be found in a job specification?
A) job title
B) working conditions
C) equipment used
D) job summary
E) physical skills
Q:
Which of the following items is likely to be found in a job description?
A) physical effort needed
B) equipment used
C) educational qualifications desired
D) job responsibilities
E) experience required
Q:
A(n) ________ details the characteristics of the individual who should be hired for a particular job.
A) job description
B) workforce profile
C) curriculum vitae
D) job specification
E) performance appraisal
Q:
The activities that a job entails are collectively referred to as the ________.
A) job specification
B) job description
C) workforce profile
D) rsum
E) performance appraisal
Q:
The technique commonly used to gain an understanding of a position to be filled so that the broad range of potential employees can be narrowed intelligently is known as ________.
A) job analysis
B) workforce profiling
C) employment forecasting
D) performance appraisal
E) work normalization
Q:
The basic purpose of recruitment is to ________.
A) increase the productivity of employees by influencing their behavior
B) furnish feedback to organization members about how they can become more productive and useful to the organization in its quest for quality
C) eliminate barriers and increase opportunities for the utilization of underutilized and/or disadvantaged individuals
D) narrow a large field of prospective employees to a relatively small group of individuals from which someone eventually will be hired
E) refine work methods, reduce production costs, and increase the level of organizational diversity
Q:
________ is the initial attraction and screening of the supply of prospective human resources available to fill a position.
A) Onboarding
B) Promotion
C) Recruitment
D) Prospecting
E) Orientation
Q:
Which of the following is the first step in providing appropriate human resources for an organization?
A) selection
B) orientation
C) recruitment
D) training
E) performance appraisal
Q:
One of the weaknesses of performance appraisals is that the emphasis is on completing paperwork rather than on critiquing individual performance.
Q:
Performance appraisals should emphasize how well the individual is doing the job, not the evaluator's impression of the individual's work habits.
Q:
Although conceptually similar, performance and objectives should be distinct and independent topics of discussion during performance appraisals.
Q:
When employees' performance is appraised using a rating scale, only one employee can occupy a particular ranking.
Q:
Performance appraisal is a continuing activity that focuses exclusively on established human resources within the organization, while training focuses on newcomers.
Q:
In a lecture, trainees participate primarily through listening and note taking.
Q:
An assessment center is a place in which participants engage in a number of individual and group exercises constructed to simulate important activities at the organizational levels to which they aspire.
Q:
To be considered as effective, test results should not be used as the sole determinant of a hiring decision.
Q:
Managers expose themselves to legal prosecution by basing employment decisions on personality tests that are invalid and unreliable.
Q:
Typing and keyboarding tests are examples of aptitude tests.
Q:
In the area of equal employment opportunity, the basic purpose of positive movement is to eliminate barriers and increase opportunities for the purpose of increasing the utilization of underutilized and/or disadvantaged individuals.
Q:
Equal opportunity legislation protects the right of a citizen to work and obtain a fair wage based primarily on race and ethnicity.
Q:
Private employment agencies collect a fee from either the person hired or the organization doing the hiring, once the hire has been finalized.
Q:
Wikstrom's human resource inventory records furnish different data on which to base a hiring-from-outside decision.
Q:
Wikstrom's position replacement form focuses on position-centered information rather than the people-centered information maintained on the management inventory card.
Q:
Wikstrom's human resource inventory forms are meant to be used exclusively for filling managerial positions and cannot be used for filling nonmanagerial positions.
Q:
The supply of individuals from which to recruit is continually changing, which means that at times, finding appropriate human resources will be much harder than at other times.
Q:
A job description refers to the characteristics of the individual who should be hired for the job.
Q:
Recruitment is the process of developing qualities in human resources that will enable them to be more productive and thus contribute more to organizational goal attainment.
Q:
The phrase inappropriate human resources refers to organization members who do not make a valuable contribution to the attainment of management system objectives.
Q:
Explain the concepts of centralization and decentralization. How can a manager determine the appropriate amount of decentralization for a specific situation?
Q:
List a few guidelines for making delegation effective in an organization.
Q:
What is delegation? Explain the steps in the delegation process.
Q:
What is accountability? Why is it important in organizations?
Q:
Describe the viewpoints of both line and staff personnel in terms of the reasons that lead to a conflict in line-staff relationships.
Q:
Explain the three roles that, according to Harold Stieglitz, staff personnel typically perform to assist line personnel.
Q:
Explain the concepts of line, staff, and functional authority.
Q:
Describe the characteristics of a responsible manager and explain the method used to determine the degree of responsibility a manager possesses.
Q:
Explain the outcomes that are possible when two or more employees are uncertain as to who is responsible for a particular task.
Q:
Describe the functional similarity method of dividing job activities.
Q:
If creativity is desirable, then ________.
A) the organization should be completely centralized
B) some degree of decentralization is desirable
C) the span of control should be narrow
D) an autocratic management style should be used
E) the organization should be completely decentralized
Q:
If speedy decision-making is essential to an organization, the organization should ________.
A) be decentralized
B) be centralized
C) have a tall organizational structure
D) have a matrix structure
E) have virtual teams
Q:
Decentralization ________.
A) cuts through red tape
B) reduces innovation
C) lowers organization flexibility
D) optimizes decision making
E) reduces responsibility gaps
Q:
Which of the following is an indicator that an organization is too large and decentralized?
A) few product innovations
B) high labor costs relative to other organizational expenses
C) excessive organizational rules and regulations
D) heterogenous product lines
E) poor customer relationships
Q:
Which of the following is most likely to be true if an organization is decentralized?
A) There is homogeneity in the organization's product line.
B) There is a narrow span of management.
C) There is a high degree of delegation.
D) There is little accountability.
E) There is a lack of authority among middle managers.
Q:
Jerry Jones, the owner of the American football team the Dallas Cowboys , used to have the final say over
all personnel decisions. None of the other individuals could provide their inputs on personnel decisions. A minimal amount of authority had been delegated to individuals. The Dallas Cowboys had a ________ organization.
A) centralized
B) functionally organized
C) decentralized
D) flat
E) motivated
Q:
When a minimal number of job activities and minimal amount of authority are delegated to subordinates, the organization is ________.
A) decentralized
B) formalized
C) flat
D) centralized
E) functionally organized
Q:
Which of the following should managers NOT do to eliminate obstacles to the delegation process?
A) maximize the impact of delegated authority on established working relationships
B) help delegates cope with problems whenever necessary
C) build subordinate confidence in the use of delegated authority
D) willingly consider the ideas of others seriously
E) allow employees to learn from their mistakes without suffering unreasonable penalties
Q:
Which of the following is an advantage of delegation?
A) It helps supervisors to hide their professional inadequacies.
B) It significantly reduces the amount of time taken to complete a task.
C) It frees up the supervisor to perform other organizational tasks.
D) It allows the supervisor to forgo personal responsibility for delegated tasks.
E) It provides employees with a false sense of authority.
Q:
Janet is the senior manager of a scientific operations team at a well-known clinical research organization. The organization delivers more than 3,000 solutions across more than 15 therapeutic areas. Being a perfectionist, Janet has reached her present position through hard work and dedication. Given that she has also worked effectively with teams in the past, she has recently been assigned to lead a team working on a new project which is critical to the company. Janet refuses to allocate any tasks to her team and decides to put in extra hours and weekends to complete the ground work herself. Based on the information presented here, which of the following would best explain this contradiction?
A) Janet feels that delegating project work will be seen as a sign of weakness.
B) Janet feels she will not be able to guide her team well on the project.
C) Janet feels that by delegating work, she will complicate her working relationship with the team.
D) Janet feels that this project is vital to the team's success.
E) Janet is reluctant to delegate work as she lacks confidence in her team's abilities.
Q:
Which of the following obstacles to delegation is related to the supervisor?
A) fear that subordinates will not do a job well
B) reluctance to accept delegated authority
C) reluctance to exercise authority that may complicate working relationships
D) fear that the supervisor will be unavailable for guidance
E) belief that the supervisor doesn't have confidence in employees
Q:
Which of the following is a guideline for making delegation effective?
A) Avoid giving employees freedom to pursue tasks in their own way.
B) Refrain from entrusting employees with whole projects or tasks.
C) Allow employees to set their own standards for performance.
D) Delegate tasks on the basis of employee interests at all times.
E) Give employees the authority necessary to accomplish tasks.
Q:
The three steps in the delegation process are ________.
A) create accountability, promote acceptance, and facilitate performance
B) assign specific duties, grant authority, and create responsibility
C) assign responsibility, create accountability, and assign specific duties
D) create responsibility, grant authority, and promote acceptance
E) assign specific duties, create responsibility, and promote acceptance
Q:
Which of the following is the first step in the delegation process?
A) assigning specific duties to the individual
B) giving the subordinate the right and power to accomplish assigned duties
C) creating the obligation for the subordinate to perform the assigned duties
D) collecting feedback from the subordinate
E) training employees to complete tasks efficiently
Q:
The process of assigning job activities and related authority to specific individuals in the organization is termed ________.
A) delegation
B) centralization
C) job specification
D) task identification
E) task significance
Q:
The management philosophy which states that individuals will be held liable for how well they use their authority or perform their activities, and will be rewarded or punished for doing so is ________.
A) reinforcement
B) line authority
C) accountability
D) delegation
E) centralization
Q:
In which of the following roles, do staff personnel act as representatives, or agents, of top management?
A) control role
B) advisory role
C) service role
D) counseling role
E) functional role
Q:
________ consists of the right to give orders within a segment of the organization in which this right is normally nonexistent.
A) Staff authority
B) Line authority
C) Decentralization
D) Functional authority
E) Informal authority
Q:
Functional authority ________.
A) is delegated to individuals who possess neither staff nor line authority
B) generally covers only specific task areas
C) is assigned to individuals for an indefinite period of time
D) is the most fundamental type of authority within an organization
E) is granted in the absence of line or staff authority