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Q:
Although technology is not the only cause of change in society, it is a primary cause.
Q:
The dominant feature of technology is change and then more change.
Q:
Technology is an unmistakable ethical force, but not an economic or social force, in the world where we live.
Q:
Describe the environmental management practices of a business firm with which you are familiar. Which stage of the corporate environmental responsibility model best fits this firm, and why? Looking again at this same firm, what steps might its managers take to improve its environmental performance? In answering this question, consider the various elements of effective environmental management.
Q:
Do you think businesses should voluntarily undertake environmental efforts, beyond those required by law? Why or why not?
Q:
Q:
Discuss the following statement: Effective environmental management makes firms more competitive.
Q:
What are the appropriate civil and criminal penalties for companies that violate environmental laws? What types of guidelines exist for sentencing environmental wrongdoers?
Q:
Briefly describe acid rain. Do you think a command-and-control or market-based regulatory approach would work better to reduce acid rain emissions, and why?
Q:
Companies that cultivate a vision of sustainability must adopt sophisticated strategic planning techniques to:
A. Increase the competitive advantage of other international organizations.
B. Detect the limited number of internal factors that influence the employee performance reviews.
C. Allow their top manager to assess the full range of the firms effects on the environment.
D. Increase the number of government regulations that are passed to reduce pollution.
Q:
When environmentally proactive companies seek out imaginative, innovative new methods for reducing pollution and increasing efficiency, they are adopting which strategy?
A. Technological innovation.
B. Product differentiation.
C. Green marketing.
D. Cost savings.
Q:
When companies develop a reputation for environmental excellence, and they produce and deliver products and services designed to attract environmentally aware customers, this is called:
A. Technological innovation.
B. Strategic planning.
C. Green marketing.
D. Cost savings.
Q:
Companies that reduce pollution and hazardous waste, reuse or recycle materials, and operate with greater energy efficiency achieve a competitive advantage due to:
A. Technological innovation.
B. Product differentiation.
C. Green marketing.
D. Cost savings.
Q:
Some researchers believe that business firms moving towards ecological sustainability results in:
A. Competitive advantages.
B. Decreased worker productivity.
C. More government regulation.
D. Less money for shareholders.
Q:
In 2011 how many of the worlds top 250 companies issued an integrated sustainability report?
A. 20 percent.
B. 45 percent.
C. 72 percent.
D. 95 percent.
Q:
Effective environmental management requires an integrated approach that involves:
A. A team of line managers within a business organization.
B. Leadership from top-level executives who make all corporate decisions.
C. All parts of the organization, as well as strong partnerships with stakeholders.
D. None of the above.
Q:
When businesses form voluntary, collaborative partnerships with environmental organizations and regulators to achieve specific objectives this is called:
A. Inter-organizational alliances.
B. Environmental partnerships.
C. Cross-functional teams.
D. Command and control.
Q:
Being able to continue their activities indefinitely, without altering the carrying capacity of the earth's ecosystem, is a characteristic of:
A. Ecologically sustainable organizations.
B. Concerned citizens.
C. Codes of environmental conduct.
D. Environmental regulations.
Q:
Which of the following is not true about "green" management practices?
A. 62 percent of companies had a coherent strategy for sustainability for the entire business.
B. There are three main stages of corporate environmental responsibility.
C. Most big companies appear to be addressing sustainability issues.
D. No more than 10 to 25 percent of all U.S. companies are adopting environmental practices.
Q:
Businesses in the clean technology stage:
A. Actively manage environmental issues.
B. Have well-funded programs for environmental technology.
C. Evaluate cyber technology-related risks.
D. Develop innovative technologies that support sustainability.
Q:
Which of the following is the most advanced stage of corporate environmental responsibility?
A. Pollution prevention stage.
B. Clean technology stage.
C. Product stewardship stage.
D. Green management stage.
Q:
Subaru Automotive of Americas effort to minimize waste is an example of:
A. Pollution prevention.
B. Product stewardship.
C. Clean technology.
D. None of the above.
Q:
Which of the following is indicative of a firm in the pollution prevention stage of the corporate environmental responsibility model?
A. Realizing that it would be less efficient and more expensive to prevent pollution before it is created.
B. Focusing on all environmental impacts of the product life-cycle.
C. Minimizing or eliminating waste before it is created.
D. Incurring losses due to environmental costs.
Q:
Environmental regulations stimulate some sectors of the economy by:
A. Creating jobs in industries like environmental consulting, asbestos abatement, and instrument manufacturing.
B. Saving jobs in industries like fishing and tourism when natural areas are protected or restored.
C. Compelling businesses to become more efficient by conserving energy.
D. All of the above.
Q:
Which of the following is not a possible cost of environmental regulation?
A. Unemployment.
B. Reduced capital investment.
C. Corporate restructuring.
D. Lowered productivity.
Q:
Which of the following is not true about the guidelines for sentencing environmental wrongdoers set by the U.S. Sentencing Commission?
A. The penalties reflect the severity of the offense and the companys demonstrated environmental commitment.
B. Businesses having an active compliance program would receive lighter sentences in the event of a violation.
C. Businesses having no active compliance program would be granted an extension to develop a program.
D. Businesses that promptly assisted any victims would receive lighter sentences in the event of a violation.
Q:
Which of the following is (are) true about emission fees?
A. Each business is charged for the undesirable pollution that it emits.
B. Companies emitting more pollutants end up paying more pollution taxes.
C. Revenues from emission fees are used to support environmental efforts.
D. All of the above.
Q:
Which of the following statements is not true about environmental standards?
A. Regulatory agencies can establish standard allowable levels of pollutants.
B. The government has the power to command business firms to comply with certain standards.
C. The government rarely interferes in a business's choice of pollution technology.
D. They are the most widely used methods of regulation.
Q:
Which of the following statements is (are) true about the Comprehensive Environmental
Response Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA)?
A. It established a fund supported primarily by a tax on the petroleum and chemical companies.
B. It is regarded as one of the most successful environmental laws.
C. The funds collected are used to clean up sites where the original polluter cannot be identified.
D. Both A and C, but not B.
Q:
Environmental justice is a movement to:
A. Prevent inequitable exposure to risk, such as from hazardous waste.
B. Identify polluters and require them to pay for the cleanup of their toxic waste.
C. Reduce pollution at the source, rather than treat and dispose of waste at the end of the pipe.
D. Specifically restrict the use of dangerous pesticides which can pollute groundwater.
Q:
The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (amended in 1984) does not require:
A. Toxic waste generators to have a permit.
B. Transporters to maintain careful records.
C. Disposal facilities to treat hazardous waste before disposal.
D. All hazardous waste to be incinerated.
Q:
Which of the following is true about the Toxic Substances Control Act?
A. It required reductions in urban smog, acid rain, and greenhouse gas emissions.
B. It established a national policy to regulate, restrict, and, if necessary, ban toxic chemicals.
C. It promoted nontoxic chemicals and fuels for business use.
D. It authorized funds for treatment plants and toxic waste cleanup.
Q:
Which country has made the greatest progress in reducing its solid waste stream?
A. United Kingdom.
B. Germany.
C. Japan.
D. United States.
Q:
Hydraulic fracturing, or fracking, has the following benefit:
A. Natural gas burns more cleanly than either coal or oil.
B. It is a risk-free form of natural gas extraction.
C. It gives more businesses to sewage plants to clean contaminated water.
D. There are no benefits to fracking.
Q:
Which of the following is not true about water pollution?
A. It affects crop yields.
B. It can be caused by pesticides and herbicides.
C. It can be caused by biodegradable products.
D. The Water Pollution Control Act maintains the integrity of all surface water in the United States.
Q:
Which of the following statements is not true with respect to acid rain?
A. A primary source of acid rain is coal-fired utilities.
B. Acid rain occurs when carbon dioxide combines with water vapor in the atmosphere.
C. Acid rain is worse in some regions of the United States than others.
D. Acid rain degrades buildings.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of air pollution?
A. Air pollution occurs when more pollutants are emitted into the atmosphere than can be safely absorbed and diluted by natural processes.
B. A majority of the people in the U.S. breathe unsafe air for at least part of the year.
C. Air pollution caused by particulate matter is responsible for fewer than 600 premature or unnecessary deaths annually.
D. The EPA has identified hundreds of "criteria" pollutants, relatively common harmful substances that serve as indicators of overall levels of air pollution.
Q:
In the United States, the federal government regulates which of the following major areas of environmental protection?
A. Air pollution.
B. Water pollution.
C. Land pollution.
D. All of the above.
Q:
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) was created:
A. To monitor and regulate nuclear activity.
B. To coordinate most of the governments efforts to protect the environment.
C. To monitor and regulate occupational health and safety standards.
D. All of the above.
Q:
Rewards and incentives are effective ways to make business people consider the environmental impacts of their actions.
Q:
Cross-functional teams are usually a poor way to solve environmental problems.
Q:
Effective environmental management requires an integrated approach that involves all parts of the business organization.
Q:
An ecologically sustainable organization is a business that addresses environmental issues only when they pose an immediate threat.
Q:
Most big companies are still in the pollution prevention stage of corporate environmental responsibility.
Q:
Environmental regulations, such as energy conservation, depress the economy.
Q:
Emissions of nearly all major pollutants have increased substantially since 1970.
Q:
The Clean Air Act of 1990 incorporated the concept of tradable allowances as a key part of its approach to pollution reduction.
Q:
Superfund has been regarded as a public policy success in the cleanup of toxic waste sites.
Q:
Efforts to prevent inequitable exposure to risk, such as from hazardous waste, are sometimes referred to as the movement for environmental justice.
Q:
Under the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976, hazardous waste must be treated before disposal in landfills.
Q:
The Safe Drinking Water Act of 1974 requires permits for most point sources of pollution, such as industrial emissions.
Q:
The EPA has identified carbon monoxide as the sole indicator of the overall level of air pollution.
Q:
The first United States federal laws to protect the environment involved protecting navigable waterways.
Q:
By setting a common standard for all firms, government can take the cost of pollution control out of competition.
Q:
Reasons for the destruction of rain forests include:
A. Commercial logging.
B. Cattle ranching.
C. Conversion of forests to plantations.
D. All of the above.
Q:
Which of the following is not true about rain forests?
A. They are the planets richest areas in terms of biological diversity.
B. They will be severely depleted within the next 8 years.
C. They account for about 7 percent of the earths surface.
D. They account for somewhere between 40 to 75 percent of the earths species.
Q:
The Carbon Disclosure Project found that:
A. Companies that invested in climate change lost total revenue.
B. Companies in the railroad industry could not help the environment.
C. Companies could help the environment and their investors simultaneously.
D. Companies that were carbon performance leaders returned less total return to their investors than their peers.
Q:
Which of the following countries has not ratified the Kyoto Protocol?
A. Germany.
B. France.
C. United States.
D. United Kingdom.
Q:
By promoting the use of clean cookstoves in developing nations, a global alliance hopes to reduce:
A. Deforestation,
B. The burning of fossil fuels.
C. Black carbon.
D. Methane.
Q:
Which of the following statements is (are) true about global warming?
A. The earth has already warmed by between 0.6 and 0.9 degrees Celsius over the past century.
B. Burning fossil fuels is the leading contributor of global warming.
C. The amount of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere has increased by as much as 25 percent since the Industrial Revolution.
D. All of the above.
Q:
Scientists believe that if the Montreal Protocol is honored the ozone layer will recover by:
A. 2015.
B. 2035.
C. 2050,
D. Never.
Q:
Depletion of the ozone layer, destruction of the rain forests, and species extinctions all have an impact on:
A. All of society.
B. A particular region.
C. A particular nation.
D. Only developing countries.
Q:
A thin layer of gas that protects the earth from excessive ultraviolet radiation from the sun is:
A. Ozone.
B. Carbon dioxide.
C. Methane.
D. Oxygen.
Q:
A new imperative for governments, businesses and society is to:
A. Preserve the global commons and assure its continued use.
B. Assure fair access to the global commons for all individuals.
C. Equalize the usage of the global commons among all nations of the world.
D. Avoid the use of the global commons in order to preserve it for future use.
Q:
A shared resource, such as land, air, or water, that a group of people uses collectively is a(n):
A. Economic village.
B. Collective resource.
C. Global unification.
D. Commons.
Q:
The amount of land and water a human population needs to produce the resources it consumes and to absorb its wastes given prevailing technology is called:
A. Ecological footprint.
B. Technological innovation.
C. Sustainable development.
D. Consumption footprint.
Q:
Rapid economic development is often accompanied by:
A. Increasing population growth.
B. Greatly decreased crop yields.
C. Rising incomes, bringing higher rates of both consumption and waste.
D. Decreasing incomes, bringing rates of both consumption and waste.
Q:
Why is inequality an environmental problem?
A. People in the richest countries consume many natural resources.
B. People in the poorest countries often misuse natural resources.
C. People in the richest countries have strong environmental values.
D. Both A and B, but not C.
Q:
Which of the following statements is not true about the population?
A. The world population will peak at over 11 billion people around the year 2100.
B. For many thousands of years, population growth was gradual.
C. Industrial production would have to quintuple over the next 40 years in order to maintain the same living standard that people have now, given expected population growth.
D. Just 10,000 years ago, the earth was home to no more than 10 million humans, scattered in small settlements.
Q:
Which of the following statements is not true about arable land?
A. It is a nonrenewable resource.
B. Over half of the irrigated lands in developing countries have been salinized.
C. Poor farming practices have caused arable lands to turn into deserts.
D. Agricultural chemicals have contaminated most of the arable lands.
Q:
With respect to fresh water, according to one estimate, if it were possible to eliminate pollution, capture all available fresh water, and distribute fresh water equitably:
A. Demand would exceed supply within a hundred years.
B. There would be a balance between demand and supply within a hundred years.
C. Supply would exceed demand within a hundred years.
D. None of the above.
Q:
Which of the following is an example of a nonrenewable resource?
A. Coal.
B. Fresh water.
C. Timber.
D. Fish.
Q:
The core idea(s) of sustainable development is (are):
A. Economic development must be accomplished sustainably.
B. Poverty is an underlying cause of environmental degradation.
C. Affluence is an underlying cause of environmental degradation.
D. Both A and B, but not C.
Q:
Sustainable development:
A. Meets the needs of the present while compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
B. Gives precedence to environmental over economic considerations.
C. Balances economic and environmental considerations.
D. Gives precedence to present needs over future needs.
Q:
In which year was the first World Summit on Sustainable Development held?
A. 1982.
B. 1985.
C. 1990.
D. 1992.
Q:
Sustainable development will require technology cooperation through long-term partnerships between companies in developed and developing countries to transfer environmental technologies.
Q:
Life-cycle analysis involves collecting information on the lifelong environmental impact of a product, all the way from extraction of raw material, to manufacturing, to its distribution, use and ultimate disposal.
Q:
Rain forest destruction is controversial because these environments are more valuable cut down than standing.
Q:
Biodiversity refers to the number and variety of species that have become extinct.
Q:
The Carbon Disclosure Project found that companies with a strategic focus on climate
change financially outperformed their survey peers.