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Q:
Which of the following contributes strongly to grouphate?
a. Frequent meetings that accomplish little.
b. Conducting group meetings incompetently
c. Social loafing of some members
d. All of the above
Q:
Conflict
a. is an expressed struggle
b. is between interconnected parties
c. involves perceived incompatible goals
d. involves interference in attaining desired goals from parties in disagreement
Q:
Those group members likely to be eliminated from consideration as the leader of an informal group
include which of the following?
a. Members who express strong, unqualified assertions
b. Members who are bossy and dictatorial
c. Members who seem uninformed, unintelligent, and unskilled
d. All of the above
Q:
Effectiveness of our communication as one variable of competent communication
a. is Me, not We oriented
b. varies from deficiency to proficiency
c. is determined as either competent or incompetent based on goal achievement
d. is manifested as a concern for self
Q:
Which of the following is a key component of the collaborative style of
conflict management?
a. confrontation
b. coalitions
c. compliance
d. integration
Q:
You are the only woman in a group of five members. Even though it is an otherwise
all-male group, you can improve your chances of emerging as leader of the group by
a. emphasizing task-relevant communication
b. waiting to speak until all other members have had an opportunity to discuss issues
c. express strong opinions
d. being highly aggressive during discussions
Q:
When one group member says to another in a frustrated tone of voice,
"Your report must be on my desk tomorrow," she/he
a. exhibits communication incompetence
b. engages in unethical communication
c. may be communicating incompetently, but it cant be determined until
the context is known
d. shows no sense of context
Q:
Which of the following is a basic element of principled negotiation?
a. Separating the people from the problem
b. Negotiating on positions, not interests
c. Generating a variety of options
d. Using objective standards to weigh merits and demerits of a proposal
Q:
The situational leadership model includes which of the following leadership styles:
a. Laissez-faire style
b. Participative style
c. Readiness style
d. Servant style
Q:
Ethical standards for determining competent communication include
a. providing choice where possible
b. sound judgment
c. absolute integrity, no exceptions
d. evaluating the sender of the message
Q:
A BATNA is
a. Best Alternative to a Negative Agreement
b. Best Alternative to a Negotiated Agreement
c. a fall back position when negotiations fail to produce an agreement
d. a form of hard bargaining
Q:
Based on leadership research, which of the following conclusions is supported:
a. Leaders are born not made
b. The democratic or participative leadership style should be chosen
over the autocratic or directive style
c. Certain traits determine who will emerge as a leader and who will be
an effective leader
d. Effective leaders adapt to changing situations, using styles flexibly
Q:
Hindsight bias is
a. giving too much emphasis to information that is current and not enough
emphasis to information that is older.
b. letting past accomplishments overly influence present choices made in
groups
c. allowing past events to dictate present decisions
d. the tendency to look back after the fact or when an outcome has been
Q:
Constructive and destructive anger can be distinguished from each other by which of the following
variables?
a. Reciprocation of the anger
b. Asymmetry of the anger
c. Duration of the anger
d. Intensity of the anger
Q:
Research on the trait perspective on leadership in groups shows that
a. Highly intelligent individuals will almost always make great leaders
b. Individuals with personality traits such as conscientiousness, extraversion, and
agreeableness usually make effective leaders
c. effective leadership is a person not a process
d. leaders are not born; theyre developed
Q:
The We-not-Me orientation of the communication competence model means that
a. your family rarely makes sacrifices for any individual family member
b. your individual goals should not be met within a group context
c. your independence is more important than the well-being of your relationship with your group members
d. when your personal goal to spend time alone hiking in Death Valley clashes with
Q:
Someone using the competing, power-forcing style of conflict management shows
a. high concern for task but low concern for relationships in groups
b. low concern for task but high concern for relationships in groups
c. medium concern for task but high concern for relationships in groups
d. none of the above
Q:
Role reversal occurs when a group member attempts to change from playing one task role to a
different task role.
Q:
Status and connection dimensions of conversations typically produce different
expectations and communication patterns, such as
a. status produces a desire for interdependence and intimacy
b. connection produces cooperation and consensus seeking
c. status produces empowerment
d. connection produces a competitive urge to control conversations
Q:
We apologize for our previous comments that characterized your leader as dishonest is an example
of
a. confrontation
b. yielding
c. smoothing
d. accommodating
Q:
Accepting a newcomer into an established, successful group often poses a risk of disrupting a
smooth-functioning system.
Q:
Asian cultures are typically
a. collectivist and cooperation
b. individualist and competitive
c. collectivist and competitive
d. individualist and cooperative
Q:
We dont want to deal with this issue is an example of _______ style of conflict management?
a. accommodating
b. avoiding
c. confrontation
d. a and b
Q:
Groups are more accepting of a newcomer when members believe the newcomers accepts and will
conform to the norms, values, and practices of the group.
Q:
When we assume that everyone has the same meaning for a word, this is called
a. equilibrium
b. bypassing
c. a transaction
d. polarization
Q:
You have consistently lied to us and distorted the facts during these negotiations is an example of
a. confrontation method of conflict management
b. integrative method of conflict management
c. constructive conflict
d. none of the above
Q:
Despite their critical importance to group success, maintenance roles are often viewed as having
lower status in a competitive culture such as the U.S.
Q:
In the typical bar chart, the ______ variable is plotted on the vertical y-axis while the ______ variable is plotted on the horizontal x-axis.
A.independent; dependent
B.nominal; interval
C.dependent; independent
D.ratio; ordinal
Q:
In a typical line graph, the ______ variable is shown on the vertical y-axis and the ______ variable is shown on the horizontal x-axis.
A.dependent; independent
B.ratio; nominal
C.independent; dependent
D.primary; secondary
Q:
In which type of chart do the slices represent a percentage of the whole?
A.bar chart
B.line chart
C.column chart
D.pie chart
Q:
Which of the following contain the captions for the rows of a table?
A.boxheads
B.footnotes
C.source notes
D.stubheads
Q:
All of the following are elements of tables EXCEPT _____.
A.source notes
B.title
C.stubheads
D.explanatory legends
Q:
Jan has several very detailed and complex charts of results from a six-month research study. She created them mainly for justification of some of the recommendations she plans on making to the client, but they are not necessary for understanding the research project's results, in general. Where should Jan place these charts in the research report?
A.executive summary
B.body
C.appendix
D.methodology section
Q:
When a researcher uses pictures, tables, or charts to clarify complex points or emphasize a message in a research report, he or she is using _____.
A.verbal elements
B.medium elements
C.graphic aids
D.formalizers
Q:
In the research report, the suggestions for actions that should be taken appears in which section of the report?
A.title page
B.introduction
C.conclusions and recommendations
D.body
Q:
In which section of the research report should comprehensive or detailed charts be placed?
A.introduction
B.body
C.executive summary
D.appendix
Q:
The findings of the study should be presented in the ________ section.
A.introduction
B.recommendations
C.appendix
D.results
Q:
Which aspect of the research methodology section of the research report should include an explanation of whether the research was exploratory, descriptive, or causal?
A.sample design
B.research design
C.analysis
D.data collection
Q:
All of the following are included in the research methodology section of a research report EXCEPT _____.
A.results
B.data collection and fieldwork
C.sample design
D.analysis
Q:
The specific objectives of the research report should be presented in the _____ section of the body of the report.
A.appendix
B.introduction
C.results
D.recommendations
Q:
All of the following are elements of the summary of research report EXCEPT _____.
A.recommendations, or suggestions for action, based on the conclusions
B.objective of the report
C.the methodology and the major results
D.detailed charts and tables with results
Q:
The last thing that should be written in a research report is the _____.
A.summary
B.body
C.introduction
D.appendix
Q:
The document to the researcher that approves the project, details who has responsibility for it, an describes the resources available to support it is called the:
A.letter of authorization
B.letter of transmittal
C.introductory letter
D.formality letter
Q:
A researcher is writing a letter to include after the title page of a research report. The purpose of this letter is to release or deliver the report to the recipient rather than provide detailed information of the research findings. This letter is called the _____.
A.letter of authorization
B.letter of transmittal
C.introductory letter
D.formality letter
Q:
Which element of a research report should state the title of the report, for whom the report is prepared, by whom it was prepared, and the date of releases or presentation?
A.preamble
B.appendix
C.letter of transmittal
D.title page
Q:
In writing a research report, the idea that "all parts needed for effective communication should be included, and no more than this" deals with which aspect of the report?
A.distortion
B.format
C.formality
D.synergy
Q:
Which of the following is an element of a research report?
A.title page
B.executive summary
C.body
D.all of these choices
Q:
The standard outline of a research report is known as the _____.
A.results
B.report format
C.introduction
D.summary
Q:
A written statement of a research study and its results is known as a _____.
A.communicator
B.medium
C.field of experience
D.research report
Q:
In the communication process, the manager who makes a decision based on the business research would be part of which element of the communication process?
A.message
B.source
C.audience
D.communicator
Q:
The oral presentation at the end of a research project would be part of which element of the communication process?
A.medium
B.audience
C.communicator
D.message
Q:
In the communication process, the findings of the research project report would be considered the _____.
A.message
B.audience
C.feedback
D.source
Q:
The manager who writes the report would be part of which element of the communication process?
A.medium
B.message
C.communicator
D.audience
Q:
All of the following are elements of the communication process EXCEPT _____.
A.message
B.regulations
C.feedback
D.audience
Q:
When a researcher contacts a decision-maker after the decision-maker has had a chance to read the research report to ask if any part of the report needs further clarification, this is known as a research follow-up.
Q:
One way to communicate a research report to the managers of an organization is through the organization's Intranet.
Q:
A good rule-of-thumb for an oral presentation of a research report is to not be redundant.
Q:
An effective oral presentation of a research report is one that is consistent across all audiences.
Q:
The oral presentation of a research report should be long and thorough.
Q:
The purpose of an oral presentation of a research report is to present all of the details of the research.
Q:
Two common variants of the bar chart format are the subdivided-bar chart and the multiple-bar chart.
Q:
A stratum chart shows the relationship of more than one dependent variable to the independent variable.
Q:
The most common independent variable for line charts is time.
Q:
About eight slices in a pie chart is the recommended maximum.
Q:
The main advantage of using charts is that they are not subject to distortion.
Q:
The purpose of charts in a research report is to translate numbers into a visual form that displays the relationship between the numbers.
Q:
The bannerhead heads of a table contain the captions for the columns of the table.
Q:
Graphics used in a research report do not need to be interpreted for the reader in the text of the report.
Q:
The outline for a basic research report is the same as that for an applied research report.
Q:
Detailed and comprehensive tables should be presented in the appendix of the research report.
Q:
The limitations of the research study should not be discussed in the research report.
Q:
The results section of a research report should include summary tables and charts.
Q:
The body of a research report begins with a methodology section.
Q:
The summary of the research report should be written before the report itself is written.
Q:
The letter of authorization is a letter written by the researcher that details who has responsibility for the research and describes the resources available to support it.
Q:
Relatively formal and very formal research reports include a letter of transmittal, which has the purpose of releasing or delivering the report to the recipient.
Q:
Just to be safe, the general rule is to include all the parts of a formal research report for all projects and leave it up to the client to decide which information is useful.
Q:
The report format is a standard outline that marketing research reports use as a guide to make sure that the key elements are presented in a logical and usable order.
Q:
In the communication process, the medium is the receiver or destination of the message.
Q:
Describe the purpose of the oral presentation and list suggestions for effective presentations.