Q&A Hero

Q: Give examples in which permission would be needed for the use of a photograph.

Q: When obtaining permission to take a photograph, what information should be given to the person being photographed if she or he is over 21 years of age and mentally competent?

Q: Name three individuals who should sign an informed refusal form.

Q: Patients are guaranteed information regarding their conditions through ________ and the ________.

Q: By asking permission and informing the patient of the purposes of a photo, one is acting according to the ethical principles of ________ and ________.

Q: Name the requirements for informed consent.

Q: Informed consent consists of the health care provider giving a full disclosure of ________ and the patient giving ________.

Q: Assent for a child age 5 would be different than assent for a minor age 15. a. true b. false

Q: Researchers need only the approval of a child's parents or legal guardians and not the consent of the child because children are considered minors. a. true b. false

Q: According to some regulatory agencies, it may be necessary for dental hygienists to disclose their serologic status. a. true b. false

Q: Clinical dental hygienists, who perform invasive procedures, should know their HIV status. a. true b. false

Q: Signing the Notice of Privacy Protection as mandated by HIPAA is the same as signing an informed consent document for treatment. a. true b. false

Q: Informed consent includes the patient's right to refuse treatment. a. true b. false

Q: Informed consent allows the patient to be a partner in treatment. a. true b. false

Q: Informed consent involves telling the patient a. the diagnosis. b. the treatment alternatives. c. the risks involved for each treatment. d. all of the above.

Q: Informed consent upholds the ethical principle of a. autonomy. b. parentalism. c. confidentiality. d. documentation.

Q: Documentation of the refusal of treatment should include a. documenting the information given to the patient. b. documenting that the patient understands the risks of refusing care. c. the signatures of the patient, health care provider, and witness. d. all of the above.

Q: Match the description to one of the terms listed below._____ 1/ Self-determination._____ 2/ Doing what will benefit the patient._____ 3/ Doing no harm._____ 4/ Fairness._____ 5/ Truthfulness._____ 6/ Avoidance of disseminating or revealing any personal or private information._____ 7/ Confidence in the truth or action._____ 8/ Faithfulness to promises and obligations._____ 9/ Usefulness of an action._____ 10/ Making a decision for a patient.

Q: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act considers privacy and the core value of ________.

Q: Another term for paternalism is ________.

Q: Treating patients with respect and providing for informed consent is an example of the ethical principle of ________.

Q: The ethical principle of ________ is required to assess and determine priorities in health care.

Q: ________ is the term used for donating one's professional services.

Q: The opposite of paternalism is ________.

Q: Core values found in the Code of Ethics of health care providers are based on the ________ oath.

Q: Treating all patients equally, regardless of their social class, would be an application of the core value of ________.

Q: Volunteering in a community oral health activity would be an application of the core value of ________.

Q: The use of standard precautions would be an application of the core value of ________.

Q: Confidentiality is both a legal duty and an ethical duty. a. true b. false

Q: There are laws that require the reporting of individuals with sexually transmitted diseases. a. true b. false

Q: Veracity means usefulness. a. true b. false

Q: Disclosure of confidential information is allowed a. in an emergency. b. in order to protect third parties. c. when required by law. d. all of the above.

Q: The basis of the Hippocratic oath is a. nonmaleficence. b. veracity. c. confidentiality. d. none of the above.

Q: A term closely associated with beneficence is a. nonmaleficence. b. maternalism. c. paternalism. d. veracity.

Q: Self-determination is associated with a. autonomy. b. parentalism. c. beneficence. d. veracity.

Q: Autonomy may be restricted in cases of a. mental incompetence. b. minors. c. emergency. d. all of the above.

Q: Nonmaleficence means a. to do no harm. b. to do only what is beneficial. c. to tell the truth. d. to do only what the patient accepts.

Q: Beneficence means a. to do what is good for yourself. b. to do no harm. c. to do what is good for others. d. faithfulness.

Q: Match the description to one of the terms listed below._____ 1/ A type of normative ethics that judges an action by its consequences._____ 2/ A valid claim earned by effort and hard work._____ 3/ A type of consequentialist theory._____ 4/ A branch of normative ethics that emphasizes duties._____ 5/ A discipline consisting of thoughts and ideas about morality._____ 6/ A branch of ethics that recommends specific actions it considers justified._____ 7/ A moral position that includes consequentialist theories._____ 8/ A type of ethics that emphasizes a person's character traits._____ 9/ An obligation or action that ought to be done regardless of consequences._____ 10/ A valid claim guaranteed by a society.

Q: ________ ethics was advocated by early philosophers such as Socrates, Plato, and Aristotle.

Q: Utilitarianism is a ________ theory.

Q: John Rawls is known for his theory of ________.

Q: Utilitarians view social justice as a means to ________.

Q: Kant's ethics, or ________ theories, emphasize duties.

Q: ________ is a position taken by a teleologist and is based on the notion that what matters is the result of an action.

Q: A ________ duty is a duty made obvious by the circumstances surrounding it.

Q: The ethical studies that explore the nature of moral judgments and the structure of moral concepts are called ________.

Q: A utilitarian who is concerned with the best ways of acting in a given situation is a/an ________ utilitarian.

Q: A utilitarian who is concerned with individual acts is a/an ________ utilitarian.

Q: A deontological approach considers the benefit or happiness that would result from a decision, while a teleological approach does not consider the consequences. a. true b. false

Q: A privilege is granted only if certain conditions are met. a. true b. false

Q: If person A has a right, then person B has a duty to ensure that right. a. true b. false

Q: Utilitarians are concerned with consequences when making ethical decisions. a. true b. false

Q: Prima facie duties are determined by the present situation. a. true b. false

Q: Virtue ethics is based on a. character traits. b. rights. c. duties. d. privileges.

Q: The first two utilitarian philosophers were a. Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill. b. Immanuel Kant and John Rawls. c. Immanuel Kant and John Stuart Mill. d. John Rawls and John Stuart Mill.

Q: Virtue ethics is based on theories from various philosophers, such as a. Rawls. b. Kant. c. Socrates. d. none of the above.

Q: Kantian ethics is concerned with a. rights. b. duties. c. happiness. d. the total amount of happiness in the world. e. privileges.

Q: Utilitarianism is concerned with a. rights. b. duties. c. happiness. d. the total amount of happiness in the world. e. privileges.

Q: Match the description with one of the terms below._____ 1/ Provides a report of a person's investments and holdings._____ 2/ Assists in investments and retirement planning._____ 3/ Adds value to an initial investment and increases balances._____ 4/ The value remaining after payment of debts._____ 5/ A specialized form of investing that includes stocks, bonds, and other vehicles._____ 6/ Known as "fixed income" securities._____ 7/ Allows income to be placed into a tax-deferred account._____ 8/ A fund used by nonprofit organizations._____ 9/ Insurance designed to provide income upon injury._____ 10/ Insurance that pays in case of lawsuits.

Q: List three basic steps for initial investing.

Q: List four benefits to adopting a healthy lifestyle.

Q: List three intangible benefits of professional membership as a dental hygienist.

Q: According to the U.S. Bureau of Statistics, ________ are the fastest growing occupational injury.

Q: List four pitfalls to investing.

Q: Both novice and experienced investors may participate in ________ trading, which is convenient.

Q: Interest rates can be higher with ________, which can be purchased at a local bank.

Q: A ________ doubles as a pension plan for self-employed persons.

Q: Fixed income securities are also known as ________.

Q: A group of investments is known as a ________.

Q: Preventive care is the best way to avoid stress and ergonomic-related work injuries. a. true b. false

Q: Membership in the American Dental Hygienists' Association also provides for group insurance coverage to members. a. true b. false

Q: Due to the high risk of CTDs among dental hygienists, it is becoming easier to obtain a disability policy through all major insurance plans. a. true b. false

Q: An insurance plan that will pay upon the inability to work for a period of time due to injury is known as a. life insurance. b. social security. c. disability insurance. d. liability insurance.

Q: Tax-deferred funds are also known as individual retirement accounts. a. true b. false

Q: A "share" represents ownership in a company; many are purchased as stocks. a. true b. false

Q: Interest that adds to the initial investment due to the rate of the interest and the amount of time that funds remain untouched describes a. special interest. b. compound interest. c. pro-rate interest. d. simple interest.

Q: The amount of funds remaining after payment of all debts defines a. gross income. b. net income. c. gross worth. d. net worth.

Q: Reviewing one's current situation, outlining goals, and developing a plan to obtain goals best describes a. vacation. b. retirement planning. c. financial planning. d. educational goals.

Q: Economic changes have rendered the Social Security system unreliable for retiring baby boomers. a. true b. false