Q&A Hero

Q: In a _____________________ work environment, women believe that working conditions interfere with their job performance.

Q: Section 404 of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) is credited with improving internal financial control systems in public companies even if the cost of doing so is thought to be exorbitant by small firms.

Q: In _________________ sexual harassment, individuals are coerced into providing sexual favors in return for getting jobs and promotions.

Q: Since the passage of Sarbanes-Oxley few firms have been prosecuted and fewer high level executives have received jail terms proving convincingly that the legislation is flawed.

Q: A ___________ conflict style focuses on meeting personal needs at the expense of others.

Q: The Social Investment Forum reported that socially responsible investing grew from $40 billion in 1984 to nearly $4 trillion in 2012.

Q: Which is a social cause of aggression? a. Inflated self-esteem b. Job stressors c. Perceived unfairness d. Direct provocation

Q: A firm's financial responsibility is primary and the bedrock of corporate social responsibility because without financial viability, the other responsibilities become moot issues.

Q: All of the following are part of unproductive conflicts EXCEPT: a. Conflict spirals b. Focus on solving the problem c. Center on personalities d. Conflict avoidance

Q: The economic responsibilities of a firm involve its primary function of producing goods and services that consumers need and want, while making an acceptable profit.

Q: Referring to a used car price guide to agree on the price during a sales negotiation is an example of which component of Principled Negotiation? a. Invent options for mutual gain b. Insist on objective criteria c. Focus on interests, not positions d. Separate the people from the problem

Q: Even if socially responsible business practices are costly, firms must perform them anyway.

Q: A farmer concerned about the impact that selling his land will have on his neighbors is addressing which ethical negotiation concern? a. Deception b. Distribution of outcomes c. Impact on outside groups d. None of the above

Q: The pragmatic approach is more proactive and affirmative than the strategic approach because it asks companies to identify and acknowledge company activities that can do harm and encourages firms to scrutinize their practices and address potential harms by focusing on their own value-chain activities.

Q: The negotiator who reopens a previous agreement in hopes of gaining more concessions is using which dirty negotiation trick? a. Good guy/bad guy b. Lack of authority c. Bad-faith negotiating d. Many for one

Q: The most strategic CSR initiatives are those that remove the social dimension from the firm's overall competitive strategy.

Q: Any ethical apology begins with a. Expression of regret for the harm caused b. An explanation for the problematic behavior c. An effort to repair the damage d. Acknowledgement that an offense has occurred

Q: According to Harvard Professor Michael Porter, the strategic reason for having CSR play a prominent role in a firm is that in evaluating the firm's CSR, executives should begin by scrutinizing the social impacts of the company's value chain.

Q: Which of the following is a source of organizational conflict? a. Procedures b. Values c. Roles d. All of the above

Q: Constructive engagement of stakeholders, including critics, is replacing the "just trust us" plea of yesteryear as executives conclude that the plea rarely works in a world of regular corporate scandals.

Q: Recognizing hot buttons is key to which phase of managing negative emotions during a conflict? a. Slowing down b. Cooling down c. Engaging constructively d. Reorienting

Q: An organization that does not fulfill its philanthropic responsibilities is acting unethically.

Q: Dirk admits that he overreacted during the meeting. He is engaged in which conciliatory conflict management tactic? a. Concession b. Supportive remark c. Acceptance of responsibility d. None of the above

Q: Employees who perceive that they have been unfairly treated are less satisfied, less likely to go the extra mile, and more likely to steal from the organization.

Q: MaryJo tells Fredrico, "I didn't mean to disrupt your meeting." She is engaged in which analytic conflict management tactic? a. Disclosing statement b. Descriptive statement c. Qualifying statement d. Solicitation of criticism

Q: The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) received more than 93,000 workplace discrimination complaints in 2011, and monetary relief for victims totaled more than $376 million.

Q: All of the following are signs of a dysfunctional conflict EXCEPT: a. Problem focus b. Conflict spirals c. Negative emotions d. Conflict avoidance

Q: Unfortunately, people do not want to believe that the world operates on the principles of fairness.

Q: Which of the following is a part of the definition of conflict? a. Hidden struggle b. Compatible goals c. Dependence on one another d. All of the above

Q: Fortunately, those who survive company layoffs rarely exhibit negative behaviors (such as decreased productivity or low morale).

Q: Which is a true statement about aggressive behavior? a. Aggressive behavior can have many forms. b. Aggressive behavior can be more indirect and more passive. c. Aggressive behaviors are conscious actions that hurt or injure. d. All of the above

Q: To make it easy to terminate a subordinate, ensure that you are being fair, that you deliver the news in a way that is aligned with your organization's values, and allow the employee to maintain his personal dignity.

Q: Graham knew he failed his staff and he wanted to regain their trust after the conflict. What is a simple positive step Graham could do? a. Avoid talking with his staff for at least a week to avoid any awkward moments. b. Keep on as usual and never acknowledge that the conflict happened. c. Present a strategic vision to help people buy-in to his leadership. d. Offer a genuine apology and acknowledge his personal commitment to growth.

Q: Discipline is important to ensure worker productivity, set standards of acceptable behaviors, and meet the requirements of the U. S. Sentencing Guidelines.

Q: If Heather likes to produce rapid results and prod her co-workers in the process, her conflict style might be considered: a. Accommodating b. Compromising c. Competing d. Collaboration

Q: Turkey farming is the fine art of placing poor performers alongside strong performers so that the organization benefits.

Q: Which conflict style reflects a low concern for self and a high concern for others? a. Accommodating b. Compromising c. Competing d. Collaboration

Q: Given that performance evaluations have little effect on employee performance, evaluating employee performance once every 18 months is sufficient.

Q: Which conflict style usually produces the best opportunity for agreement and usually proves to have successful results? a. Avoidance b. Compromise c. Competition d. Collaboration

Q: Interestingly, according to a survey of executives, most respondents would rather lie to employees about performance than confront them about performance problems.

Q: Carmelita noticed her supervisor was micromanaging the project, which felt very controlling. In efforts to be a contributing team member, Carmelita might find it BEST to choose to: a. Meet with the supervisor one-on-one to ask questions about the supervisor's perspective on the project. b. Meet with the whole team and talk about the supervisor's micromanagement issues. c. Make sarcastic remarks every time the supervisor is around hoping that he will get a hint. d. Quit the project and let the supervisor finish.

Q: One of a manager's most important responsibilities is to bring good people into the organization.

Q: Terry's boss just made a degrading remark on his presentation report. What would be a positive FIRST step for Terry? a. Reply back with a degrading comment to the boss. b. Take a few seconds to cool down and think through what's best to say. c. Blame a co-worker for the work done. d. Ignore the comment and move forward with the plan.

Q: Unfortunately, given diverse activities that managers are responsible for, they play a limited role in increasing employee engagement and building an ethical culture.

Q: Which is a TRUE statement about dysfunctional conflict? a. Avoidance may be a tactic with dysfunctional conflict b. The conflict usually centers around the personalities of those involved c. Strong negative emotions like sarcasm may be used d. All of the above

Q: Which of the following is false? a) Sexual harassment is any unwelcome sexually oriented behavior that makes someone feel uncomfortable. b) Sexual harassment is objective. c) Sexual harassment is determined from the point of view of a "reasonable" person regardless of the harasser's intentions. d) Sexual harassment generally involves issues of power and not romance.

Q: Which is a true statement? a. Conflict should be avoided at all costs b. Conflict makes relationships worse c. Conflict can promote personal and relational growth d. Conflict always resolves itself

Q: Which of the following is true? a) Discrimination is an intentional bias that affects behavior. b) Discrimination occurs whenever something other than qualifications affects how an employee is treated. c) Discrimination is prohibited under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 against individuals who are under 40 years old against age discrimination. d) Discrimination is always overt and clear.

Q: Explain the Principle of Veracity.

Q: ___________ refers to the fairness of exchanges: "You did this for me and I'll do that for you." a) Reciprocity b) Equality c) Impartiality d) Shared resources

Q: Amy believes she can carry out the task assigned by her supervisor. This is which element of psychological empowerment? a. Impact b. Meaning c. Competence d. Self-determination

Q: Which of the following is true? a) Cognitive biases are the result of trying to reduce uncertainty and simplify the world. b) Cognitive biases are an individual difference and do not affect all human beings in the same way. c) Business executives and students are generally reserved about their knowledge of the facts. d) People are generally good at thinking of the consequences of their decisions outside of their immediate family and friends.

Q: All of the following are forms of hard power EXCEPT: a. Coercive b. Reward c. Referent d. Legitimate

Q: Which of these terms is used to describe individuals who act in self-interested, opportunistic, deceptive, and manipulative ways to win no matter what the cost or how it affects other people? a) Relativism b) Idealism c) Locus of control d) Machiavellianism

Q: This type of power is based on the characteristics of the individual. a. Expert b. Coercive c. Reward d. Legitimate

Q: Those with higher __________ are more likely to avoid pressure to violate social norms because _____________. a) internal locus of control; they typically act at the postconventional level of moral reasoning. b) external locus of control; they believe in luck. c) internal locus of control; they believe they are in charge of their own fate. d) external locus of control; they typically act at the postconventionl level of moral reasoning.

Q: After her colleague was fired for poor performance, Maria asserts that she had very little contact with him. She is using which type of impression management technique? a. Disclaimer b. Account c. Self-handicapping d. Blaring

Q: Which of the following is true? a) People's locus of control is relatively stable, but can change over time. b) People are born with a particular locus of control. c) People are either internal or external. Locus of control is not a continuum. d) People with high external locus of control believe their life is a product of their own efforts.

Q: ____________is designed to make the employee appear more likeable. a. Exemplification b. Self-promotion c. Ingratiation d. Acclaiming

Q: Roger believes that his success at work is primarily the result of his own efforts and hard work. Roger can be characterized by: a) high internal locus of control b) high external locus of control c) Stage 2 moral reasoning d) Stage 4 moral reasoning

Q: Eduardo tries to look competent by talking about his internship experience during an interview for an accounting job. He is using which type of impression management technique? a. Acquisitive/indirect b. Protective/direct c. Protective/indirect d. Acquisitive/direct

Q: Sally attributes her success at work to luck. Sally can be characterized by: a) high internal locus of control b) high external locus of control c) Stage 2 moral reasoning d) Stage 4 moral reasoning

Q: All of the following are reasons for the abuse of power EXCEPT: a. Powerful people devote little time to finding out how others think or feel b. Powerful people protect their positions by attacking those perceived as threats c. Powerful people are more likely to rely on personal power bases d. Powerful people ignore the needs of others

Q: Which of the following is false? a) Moral reasoning can be increased through training. b) A more-principled individual is less likely to cheat. c) When an organization's leader is characterized by high moral development, the entire ethical climate of the organization is stronger. d) Employee satisfaction and commitment are not related to the leader's moral development.

Q: Which channel communicates self-fulfilling prophecies through giving high performers more opportunity to speak, to offer their opinions and to disagree? a. Output b. Feedback c. Input d. Climate

Q: Most adults are at the ____________ level of cognitive moral development and their action is ____________. a) Conventional; based on avoidance of punishment. b) Conventional; based on what others think, say, and do. c) Postconventional; based on the best outcome for society. d) Postconventional; based on their religion or guiding principles.

Q: The two most important causes of organizational lying are: a. Self-interest and role conflict b. Friendship and compassion c. Time pressures and personal benefit d. None of the above

Q: Reference: Matching Kohlberg's Levels of Moral Reasoning a) Stage 1 b) Stage 2 c) Stage 3 d) Stage 4 e) Stage 5 f) Stage 6 "You scratch my back, I'll scratch yours."

Q: According to the principle of veracity, lying would be justified in which situation? a. During a poker game b. To trick a criminal suspect into a confession c. To save a life d. All of the above

Q: Reference: Matching Kohlberg's Levels of Moral Reasoning a) Stage 1 b) Stage 2 c) Stage 3 d) Stage 4 e) Stage 5 f) Stage 6 Focused on following the rules or laws that are designed to promote the common good.

Q: Communicating negative expectations of others is referred to as the ____________ Effect. a. Galatea b. Venus c. Golem d. None of the above

Q: Reference: Matching Kohlberg's Levels of Moral Reasoning a) Stage 1 b) Stage 2 c) Stage 3 d) Stage 4 e) Stage 5 f) Stage 6 Focused on avoiding punishment.

Q: _________ is the glue that holds organizations together.

Q: Reference: Matching Kohlberg's Levels of Moral Reasoning a) Stage 1 b) Stage 2 c) Stage 3 d) Stage 4 e) Stage 5 f) Stage 6 Focused on interpersonal trust and social approval.

Q: ___________ is self-centered (I-It) communication.

Q: An effective way to avoid decision-making weaknesses and biases is to become aware of them and to incorporate steps into decision-making that are explicitly aimed at reducing their impact.

Q: All of the following are elements of discourse ethics EXCEPT:a. Equal power among participantsb. Freedom from coercionc. Involve all affected by the decisiond. Unjustified claims

Q: In organizations, individuals high on Machiavellianism are significantly more likely to have unethical intentions and to engage in unethical behavior including accepting kickbacks.

Q: Jue is a concerned listener who is skilled at building relationships. Unfortunately, he has a tendency to overlook the faults of others. He reflects which listening style? a. Time-oriented b. People-oriented c. Content oriented d. Action oriented

Q: An organization led by a leader high in cognitive moral development establishes a much stronger ethical climate in the organization.