Q&A Hero

Q: Rawls begins his theory with a natural-rights position.

Q: The Glass-Steagall Act allows consumers to obtain a free credit report once each year from each of the three primary consumer credit reporting companies.a. Trueb. False

Q: Roger Crisp believes that persuasive advertising violates the autonomy of consumers.

Q: The concept of privacy is __________.a. defined in the U.S. constitutionb. protected even when there is no reasonable expectation of privacyc. violated by the Fourth Amendmentd. protected by the Bill of Rights

Q: Advocates of advanced surveillance technology argue that people have no legitimate expectation of privacy in a public place, and thus Fourth Amendment privacy rights do not apply.a. Trueb. False

Q: Under the __________, financial institutions must provide a privacy notice to each consumer that explains what data about the consumer is gathered, with whom that data is shared, how the data is used, and how the data is protected.a. Fair Credit Reporting Actb. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Actc. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Actd. USA PATRIOT Act

Q: Aristotle's philosophical system includes moral virtue.

Q: Exemptions to the Freedom of Information Act bar disclosure of information that could compromise national security or interfere with an active law enforcement investigation.a. Trueb. False

Q: Unconscious desires cannot influence a person's actions.

Q: In the context of the Fourth Amendment, the courts have ruled that __________.a. recordings by the FBI of various telephone calls made by a U.S. citizen from a public phone booth do not violate an individual's privacyb. Federal agents can listen to phone conversations of U.S. citizens without a warrantc. without a reasonable expectation of privacy, there is no privacy rightd. the Fourth Amendment is no longer valid

Q: Informative advertising, by definition, cannot also be persuasive.

Q: Public sector employees have far greater privacy rights than those in private industry because the Fourth Amendment does not limit how a private employer treats its employees.a. Trueb. False

Q: Immanuel Kant is a social contract theorist.

Q: Virtue theory ethics emphasizes character.

Q: The pretexting rule addresses attempts by people to access personal information without proper authority by such means as impersonating an account holder or phishing.a. Trueb. False

Q: Usury in the charging of interest on a consumer transaction.

Q: Decision is central to the theory of the market process.

Q: The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act includes three key rules that affect personal privacy: financial privacy rule, safeguards rule, and pretexting rule.a. Trueb. False

Q: Jeremy Bentham is a utilitarian.

Q: John Locke is a social contract theorist.

Q: There is virtually no way to limit the deposit of cookies on a user's hard drive.a. Trueb. False

Q: Electronically stored information includes any form of digital information stored on any form of electronic storage device.a. Trueb. False

Q: Fingerhut includes installment payment pricing as a sales option.

Q: The Privacy Act of 1974 extends to the actions of the CIA, U.S. law enforcement agencies, and the private industry.a. Trueb. False

Q: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act requires healthcare organizations to employ standardized electronic transactions, codes, and identifiers to enable them to fully digitize medical records thus making it possible to exchange medical records over the Internet.a. Trueb. False

Q: John Stuart Mill is a utilitarian.

Q: Through the use of cookies, a Web site is able to identify visitors on subsequent visits.a. Trueb. False

Q: Information privacy is the combination of communications privacy and data privacy.a. Trueb. False

Q: Fingerhut targets upper income consumers.

Q: The European Union Data Protection Directive requires member countries to ensure that data transferred to non- European Union countries is protected.a. Trueb. False

Q: Utilitarianism need not be selfish.

Q: American citizens are protected by the Fourth Amendment even when there is no reasonable expectation of privacy.a. Trueb. False

Q: "Time-price" is an exception to usury laws.

Q: The U.S. has a single, overarching national data privacy policy.a. Trueb. False

Q: Online marketers can capture personal information, such as names, addresses, and Social Security numbers without requiring consent.a. Trueb. False

Q: Deontology focuses on rights.

Q: A vehicle event data recorder (EDR) is a device that records vehicle and occupant data for a few seconds before, during, and after any vehicle crash that is severe enough to deploy the vehicle's air bags.a. Trueb. False

Q: Fingerhut typically sells products for less than Wal-Mart.

Q: The Constitution does not contain the word privacy, but the Supreme Court has ruled that the concept of privacy is protected by the Bill of Rights.a. Trueb. False

Q: The__________ code gets a rootkit installation started and can be easily activated by clicking on a link to a malicious Web site in an email or opening an infected PDF file. a. logic bomb b. zombie c. dropper d. loader

Q: Present a brief argument both for and against the use of advanced surveillance technology.

Q: The__________ is a partnership between the Department of Homeland Security and the public and private sectors, established in 2003 to protect the nation's Internet infrastructure against cyberattacks.a. Carnegie Mellon's Computer Response Teamb. U.S. Computer Emergency Readiness Teamc. The National Institute of Standards and Technologyd. The Science and Technology Directorate of Homeland Security

Q: Identify three key rules of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act that affect personal privacy.

Q: Often a successful attack on an information system is due to poor system design or implementation. Once such a vulnerability is discovered, software developers quickly create and issue a__________ to eliminate the problem. a. patch b. bot c. rootkit d. Trojan horse

Q: Briefly describe how society is struggling to define the extent to which employers should be able to monitor the work-related activities of employees.

Q: Competitive intelligence combines elements of law and computer science to identify, collect, examine, and preserve data so that it is admissible in a court of law. a. True b. False

Q: An intrusion detection system monitors system and network resources and activities, and notifies the network security when it detects attempts to circumvent the security measures of a networked computer environment. a. True b. False

Q: Hacktivism involves using illegal means to obtain trade secrets from competitors. a. True b. False

Q: The use of cloud computing and virtualization software has significantly reduced computer security concerns. a. True b. False

Q: In a security incident, the primary goal must be to regain control and limit damage, and not to attempt to monitor or catch an intruder. a. True b. False

Q: __________ is the crime of obtaining goods, services, or property through deception or trickery.a. Conflict of interestb. Breach of contractc. Fraudd. Misrepresentation

Q: __________ is an effort by an employee to attract attention to a negligent, illegal, unethical, abusive, or dangerous act by a company that threatens the public interest.a. Professional malpracticeb. Conflict of interestc. Whistle-blowingd. Business intelligence

Q: Discussing security attacks through public trials and the associated publicity has not only enormous potential costs in public relations but real monetary costs as well. a. True b. False

Q: To prove fraud in a court of law, prosecutors must demonstrate that: a. the wrongdoer made a false representation of material fact. b. the wrongdoer did not intend to deceive the innocent party. c. the innocent party never relied on the misrepresentation. d. the innocent party was not injured.

Q: Even when preventive measures are implemented, no organization is completely secure from a determined computer attack. a. True b. False

Q: One of the most common faults in ethical decision making is to ignore the long-term consequences of a decision.

Q: It is not unusual for a security audit to reveal that too many people have access to critical data and that many people have capabilities beyond those needed to perform their jobs. a. True b. False

Q: The __________ is a trade group that represents the world's largest software and hardware manufacturers.a. Business Software Association (BSA)b. Business Software Alliance (BSA)c. International Business Software (IBS)d. International Software Association (ISA)

Q: At the turn of the last century, consumers didn't even have the right to sue a manufacturer for a defective product.

Q: In malpractice lawsuits, many courts have ruled that IT workers are not liable for malpractice because they__________ .a. do not belong to a professional organizationb. fail to breach a duty of carec. do not meet the legal definition of a professionald. are not certified

Q: Reference: Matching Key Stakeholders and Regulatory Agencies a) Guard rights of shareholders b) Guard rights of consumers c) Guard rights of employees d) Guard rights of the community The Federal Communication Commission (FCC)

Q: From a legal perspective, IT workers are not recognized as professionals because they are not __________ by the state or federal government. a. licensed b. b. sponsored c. associated d. graded

Q: Reference: Matching Key Stakeholders and Regulatory Agencies a) Guard rights of shareholders b) Guard rights of consumers c) Guard rights of employees d) Guard rights of the community The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

Q: Professionals require advanced training and experience, must exercise discretion and judgment in the course of their work, and their work cannot be standardized. a. True b. False

Q: A breach of the duty of care is defined as a failure to conform to the code of ethics of a professional organization. a. True b. False

Q: Reference: Matching Key Stakeholders and Regulatory Agencies a) Guard rights of shareholders b) Guard rights of consumers c) Guard rights of employees d) Guard rights of the community The Federal Reserve Board

Q: Members of the internal audit team must be expert in detecting and investigating financial statement fraud. a. True b. False

Q: From a legal perspective, there is both a reasonable person standard and a reasonable professional standard to decide whether parties owe a duty of care. a. True b. False

Q: Reference: Matching Key Stakeholders and Regulatory Agencies a) Guard rights of shareholders b) Guard rights of consumers c) Guard rights of employees d) Guard rights of the community The Federal Trade Commission

Q: The internal audit department includes members of the board of directors who determine that the internal systems and controls of the organization are adequate and effective. a. True b. False

Q: Government licensing of IT workers is common within most of the states of the United States. a. True b. False

Q: Reference: Matching Key Stakeholders and Regulatory Agencies a) Guard rights of shareholders b) Guard rights of consumers c) Guard rights of employees d) Guard rights of the community Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Q: Compliance means to be in conformance with a profession's core body of knowledge. a. True b. False

Q: Typical Codes of Conduct cover conduct described below. In the aftermath of Bhopal, the chemical industry wishing to demonstrate responsible corporate citizenship has added which additional behaviors set out below. a. Legal compliance b. Continuous improvement, communication with external stakeholders and training of suppliers on the standards c. Community awareness and emergency response d. Pollution prevention e. Safe distribution of chemicals in transit f. Employee health and safety g. Safe handling of chemicals from manufacture through disposal

Q: The core body of knowledge for any profession outlines an agreed-upon code of ethics and practices for those who practice in that profession. a. True b. False

Q: Reference: Matching Key Terms and Definitionsa) Stakeholdersb) Primary stakeholderc) Secondary stakeholderOpinion formers, community, and authorities.

Q: While no policy can stop wrongdoers, it can establish boundaries for acceptable and unacceptable behavior and enable management to punish violators. a. True b. False

Q: Which of the items listed is NOT a product of a "favorable corporate reputation." a. Charge more for its products and services b. Attract, Hire and keep higher quality applicants/employees c. Enhance their access to better capital markets d. Attract investors e. Ignore the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act

Q: There are many industry association certifications in a variety of IT-related subject areas. a. True b. False

Q: Reference: Matching Key Terms and Definitionsa) Stakeholdersb) Primary stakeholderc) Secondary stakeholderIndividuals who have an interest/claim in what the organization does or how it performs.