Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Business Law
Q:
A corporate manager who simply looks at the action he/she is about to take and only asks whether the benefit to the shareholders will outweigh the cost to the corporation, is using:
A. descriptive theory.
B. concurrent validity.
C. prescriptive theory.
D. utility thinking.
Q:
In terms of social responsibility, which of the following arguments is true?
A. Under provisions of most incorporation statutes, a corporation is considered nothing more than a company.
B. The decisions of corporate managers must always be narrowly focused on the profits of the shareholders.
C. Corporate social responsibility is based on the premise it is unethical for corporations to earn profits for themselves.
D. Corporate decisions have an impact on more people than just the shareholders and managers.
Q:
Matrix Corporation's board of directors decide not to outsource U.S. jobs to China, even though it would cut their labor costs by 50%, in order to preserve the interests of the local community. Shareholders sued the directors for failing to maximize profits. Under current U.S. law, the directors:
A. are immune from this suit.
B. are clearly liable.
C. are liable unless they put the interest of the shareholders above all other interests.
D. are liable unless granted immunity by a federal prosecutor.
Q:
"People should never make unsupported judgments about one another but should instead always investigate the facts in an effort to uncover the truth about the character of a person or the nature of a situation." This is a rule originating from:
A. ethical relativism.
B. the positive law theory.
C. utilitarianism.
D. the social contract theory.
Q:
George believes in a society where people must fend for themselves rather than give up the freedom to do as they please and in return receive a guarantee that other individuals will curb their behavior. This is an example of:
A. a state of nature.
B. a state of society.
C. the social contract theory.
D. utilitarianism.
Q:
The morality of an action is determined by its ultimate effects according to
A. natural law theory.
B. role model ethics.
C. utilitarianism.
D. positive law theory.
Q:
Samantha believes that one can only judge another's ethical decisions by "standing in his/her shoes." Samantha believes in
A. situational ethics.
B. social contract theory.
C. utilitarianism.
D. natural law theory.
Q:
According to ethical relativism:
A. human values apply to all people at all times.
B. both natural law and positive law form the basis for its beliefs.
C. there are no objective or absolute standards of right and wrong.
D. the morality of an action is determined by its ultimate effects.
Q:
Which of the following is true about the social contract theory?
A. It explains how to formulate values that permit a society to run smoothly.
B. It advocates a society in which people must fend for themselves.
C. It states that to live harmoniously, people must give up certain freedoms.
D. It states that people cannot be forced to adhere to rules, or be punished for not doing so.
Q:
Developing and formulating rules in line with values defines:
A. ethics.
B. conduct.
C. law.
D. rationalism.
Q:
_____ sees law and morality as united in a common and fundamental bond.
A. Ethical relativism.
B. Social contract theory.
C. Utilitarianism.
D. Natural law theory.
Q:
Which of the following do positive law theory and natural law theory have in common?
A. They originate from an outside source that has emerged from within society.
B. They believe that human values apply to all people at all times.
C. They believe that human decency will ultimately triumph over human cruelty.
D. They believe in forming and dictating ethical decisions to people.
Q:
The theory of _____ argues that each of us can judge a person's ethical decisions only by initially placing ourselves in the other person's place.
A. ethical relativism
B. situational ethics
C. social ethics
D. ethical realism
Q:
All business entities have the status of being a "legal person", under the authority of federal and state statutes.
Q:
Utility thinking often results in actions that are clearly unethical and potentially illegal.
Q:
Corporate social responsibility flows from the legal rights granted to corporations.
Q:
The traditional legal view was that corporate managers could be sued for making a decision that hurt the corporation's profits.
Q:
An ethical lifestyle is simply doing what is legal.
Q:
Law can frequently succeed in reaching its objectives, even if it is not founded upon ethics.
Q:
_____ consist of rules of conduct established by the government of a society to maintain harmony, stability, and justice.
A. Morals
B. Ethics
C. Laws
D. Values
Q:
Rational ethics ought to establish universal rules of behavior that apply to all people at all times. For this reason, rational ethics is often referred to as subjective ethics.
Q:
The ethic of ultimate ends' must be practiced by national leaders.
Q:
A prescriptive theory explains how to create values that benefit society.
Q:
Utilitarianism focuses on the circumstances that an individual faces.
Q:
Alfredo engages in cost-benefit thinking if he only focuses on the benefits and problems that his business will face as the result of a decision he makes.
Q:
Rational ethics states that people's ethical decisions can be judged only by understanding their situations.
Q:
Law is a means of civil management.
Q:
Negative rights theory states that the law originates from an outside source that has emerged from within society.
Q:
Ethical rules of conduct developed by various professions are often difficult to understand and follow.
Q:
Ethical theories are all based on the assumption that people want to live ethical lives.
Q:
Joe believes that there are no absolute standards of right and wrong. Joe's belief is an example of ethical absolutism.
Q:
Because relativism emphasizes the highly individualized nature of ethical decision making, it is also called subjective ethics.
Q:
Natural law theory holds that right and wrong are measured by the obligations imposed on each individual by an implied agreement among all individuals within a particular social system.
Q:
Law consists of values that govern a society's attitudes toward right and wrong.
Q:
The Communications Decency Act of 1996 violated the _____.
A. Sixth Amendment
B. Eighth Amendment
C. First Amendment
D. Fourth Amendment
Q:
The _____ protects citizens from government restraints on the content of speech, although reasonable restraints on the context (time, place, and manner) of that speech are sometimes constitutionally permissible.
A. Sixth Amendment
B. Eighth Amendment
C. First Amendment
D. Fourth Amendment
Q:
Which of the following federal acts establishes both civil and criminal penalties for violations of its provisions?
A. The CAN-SPAM Act
B. The PROTECT Act
C. The U.S. SAFE WEB Act
D. The Anti-Phishing Act
Q:
Which of the following is charged with enforcing the CAN-SPAM Act?
A. The United States Commercial Service
B. The Federal Trade Commission
C. The United States Department of Commerce
D. The U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission
Q:
In the context of the Internet, what is the reason for the access imbalance that exists in the United States?
A. Availability of service is a problem in the United States.
B. Digital literacy is an issue in the United States.
C. Security concern in the United States is high.
D. About 98 percent of American households are located where broadband is absent.
Q:
If people wish to connect to the Internet, they contract with a commercial Internet service provider and pay a fee for the type and level of service they desire. They then have access to any content provider. This uniform access is referred to as _____.
A. net equality
B. net connectivity
C. net neutrality
D. net activity
Q:
In December 2010, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) issued new rules on net neutrality to address net neutrality issues. Which of the following statements is true of these rules?
A. Wired broadband services were permitted to block lawful content, applications, services, or non-harmful devices.
B. Wireless broadband services were subject to the same disclosure rules as the wired broadband services but were granted more leeway with regard to equal access.
C. Wired broadband services were permitted to block consumer access to lawful websites that competed with their video telephony services.
D. Wireless broadband services were allowed to withhold information regarding network performance.
Q:
When a country seeks to apply its own laws to foreigners, the question is whether the country has _____.
A. jurisdiction to enforce
B. jurisdiction to prescribe
C. jurisdiction to adjudicate
D. jurisdiction to legislate
Q:
In the international context, _____ refers to judicial personal jurisdiction.
A. jurisdiction to enforce
B. jurisdiction to prescribe
C. jurisdiction to legislate
D. jurisdiction to adjudicate
Q:
The Uniform Computer Information Transactions Act, which governs software and Internet transactions as well as issues associated with software licensure, has now been adopted by a majority of states.
Q:
The Court in Capitol Records v. ReDIGI held that songs bought from Apples iTunes and similar retailers cannot be resold by the original purchaser under the first sale doctrine because the doctrine protects only the owner of a particular copy.
Q:
People and businesses can choose any domain name they want just by telling their Internet service provider that that is how they want to be known.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of the digital divide in the United States?
A. Although nearly 98 percent of American households are located where broadband is available, 60 percent of American adults are not connected.
B. The percentage of Internet users in certain areas such as California is much lower than some other areas such as Mississippi.
C. Seventy-six percent of white households are connected to the Internet, but only 57 percent of African-American households are connected.
D. Ninety percent of those under 65 use the Internet, but only about 50 percent of those 65 and older use the Internet.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of the digital divide at the global level?
A. Only 5.6 percent of Africas citizens have access to the Internet, compared with 78.6 percent in North America.
B. Only 24 percent of the population in sub-Saharan Africa has access to the Internet, compared with 80.6 percent in North America.
C. Although nearly 90 percent of households are located where broadband is available, 60 percent of adults are not connected to the Internet.
D. The number of Internet connections is growing by less than 9 percent annually, but just over one-third of the population is connected.
Q:
The United States has a comprehensive privacy law addressing the Internet environment.
Q:
Google and Facebook and other advertising-driven business models sell their users data to pay for the services they give without charge to their users.
Q:
The European Union has negotiated certain safe harbors for U.S. companies not complying with its Data Protection Directive, which allows individuals to decide how their personal information can be used.
Q:
The Council of Europe has proffered the Convention on Cybercrime as an international effort to address computer-facilitated crime.
Q:
Electronic signatures are not legal in the U.S. because Congress failed to pass the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act.
Q:
Punishment for violation of the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act of 1986 is limited to fines.
Q:
As per the rules issued by the Federal Communications Commission in December 2010, Internet service providers are allowed to block consumer access to lawful websites and applications that compete with the providers voice or video telephony services.
Q:
Commercial speech has not been accorded any protection under the First Amendment of the U.S. Constitution.
Q:
The Federal Trade Commission has expanded the definition of personal information to include not just names, phone numbers, home and e-mail address, but also mobile phone serial numbers.
Q:
Internet users in the United States pay a fee to Internet service providers for the type and level of service they desire.
Q:
Net neutrality implies that Internet service providers will discriminate against the traffic of legal content providers.
Q:
For wired broadband services, net neutrality rules prohibit blocking of lawful content, applications, services, or non-harmful devices.
Q:
Define the term click-wrap agreements. Identify one problem it might create for consumers.
Q:
Discuss the assignment of Internet domain names.
Q:
Discuss the basic tax issue that arises from cyberspace transactions.
Q:
The drastic increase in the number of people having access to the Internet has been made possible, in part because of the relatively cheap access offered by cell phones in comparison with the cost of computers.
Q:
The Internet is increasing national boundaries.
Q:
The Internet delivers private communications between particular users, much as a phone system.
Q:
Explain in brief a free speech issue in the context of online pornography. Describe the role of the judiciary and the Congress in handling this issue.
Q:
Identify and discuss an ethical issue raised by the global nature of the Internet.
Q:
Describe the European Unions approach to privacy concerns raised by the Internet.
Q:
Lavender, a beauty salon, uses the symbol of a bouquet of lavender flowers, tied with a maroon ribbon to distinguish its packages from its rivals. The symbol used by Lavender is an example of a _____.
A. patent
B. domain name
C. service mark
Answer: C
Q:
Briefly describe the digital divide that exists in the United States.
Q:
Describe Jurisdiction in International Suits. Identify the circumstances under which countries have exercised their jurisdiction to adjudicate.
Q:
So far the Uniform Computer Information Transactions Act has been adopted only in the states of Maryland and _____.
A. California
B. Texas
C. Virginia
D. Ohio
Q:
Patents that address matters of basic communication and data handling which support and permit industrywide norms are called _____.
A. standard-essential patents
B. design patents
C. utility patents
D. quasi-legal patents
Q:
Which of the following is most likely to be a standard-essential patent?
A. A keyboard with a unique design
B. A technology that enables communication through satellite phones
C. A technology that enables enhanced voice recording in a smartphone
D. A wireless mouse for laptops
Q:
A. first sale doctrine.
B. first purchase doctrine.
C. fair control doctrine.
D. fair use doctrine.
Answer: D
Q:
The Internet address for a Web page is called its:
A. Internet service provider.
B. domain name.
C. server.
D. search engine.
Q:
The _____ proffered the Convention on Cybercrime as an international effort to address computer-facilitated crime.
A. United States Secretary of Commerce
B. Federal Trade Commission
C. Council of Europe
D. Department of Commerce
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of the Electronic Signatures in Global and National Commerce Act (E-SIGN)?
A. President Clinton had refused to sign it into law.
B. Under this act, consumers cannot be forced to accept electronic signature agreements.
C. It forces consumers to receive records and documents electronically rather than in paper form.
D. It does not give electronic signatures the same legal stature as handwritten ones.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of the Uniform Computer Information Transactions Act?
A. It has not been widely approved in the U.S.
B. It focuses on procedural aspects such as electronic signatures.
C. It has been amended once.
D. It has been adopted in 20 of the 50 states.