Q&A Hero

Q: Officers may conduct a warrantless search of an individual at the time of an arrest.

Q: During a Terry Stop' officers may not conduct a pat down search of an individual without a warrant.

Q: The standard of proof in a tort case is the preponderance of the evidence.

Q: Owners of commercial property enjoy greater privacy expectations in their property for Fourth Amendment purposes than do owners of residential property.

Q: The Equal Protection Clause prevents states and the federal government from enacting criminal laws that discriminate against different classes of individuals.

Q: Voluntary intoxication usually serves as a complete defense to criminal liability.

Q: In the United States a defendant in a criminal trial is presumed innocent.

Q: At a preliminary hearing in a felony case, the government must prove its case by the "beyond a reasonable doubt" standard.

Q: The language of the Bill of Rights only refers to actions of the federal government so the protections of the Bill of Rights do not apply to state government action.

Q: When a judge's sentencing decision is challenged on appeal, the governing standard will be one of reasonableness.

Q: The U.S. Constitution allows ex post facto criminal laws.

Q: Crimes are private wrongs.

Q: Obscene noncommercial expressions receive no First Amendment protection.

Q: The Eighth Amendment forbids cruel and unusual punishments.

Q: Special deterrence results when punishment of a wrongdoer deters other persons from committing similar offenses.

Q: When Congress created the U.S. Sentencing Commission and charged it with creating Sentencing Guidelines, Congress sought (among other things) to decrease the discretion of judges in making sentencing decisions.

Q: Nigel is the sole proprietor of a construction contracting business. As part of an investigation into bid-rigging allegations, a grand jury issued a subpoena directing Nigel to turn over various records relating to his sole proprietorship. Nigel had voluntarily prepared the subpoenaed records. The government had long known that these records probably existed, but of course did not know of their contents. Nigel resisted the subpoena on Fifth Amendment grounds, arguing that being forced to comply would violate his privilege against self-incrimination. Should Nigel be required to comply with the subpoena? Why or why not?

Q: Sal Conelli is the president and sole stockholder of Salco, Inc., a corporation engaged in the wholesale food supply business. Conelli has custody of Salco's business records. A grand jury investigating possible criminal violations of health codes applicable to food products has served a subpoena demanding that certain Salco business records be made available. Conelli plans to resist the subpoena by arguing that compelling the production of the records would violate both his and Salco's Fifth Amendment privileges against self-incrimination. Should Conelli succeed with this argument? Explain your reasoning.

Q: Leviathan Corp. has filed a civil Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act (RICO) lawsuit against NBS Bros., an accounting firm. NBS has asked the court to dismiss the case for two reasons: first, Leviathan did not allege, and cannot prove, that NBS is connected in any way with organized crime, as that term is customarily used; and second, Leviathan did not allege, and cannot prove, that NBS was criminally convicted of a predicate offense. Should NBS succeed with these arguments? Explain your reasoning.

Q: Police detective Brenda Judd had a hunch that Beats, Inc., a retail seller of stereo equipment and related supplies, was involved in a drug-smuggling operation. In order to acquire evidence confirming her hunch, Judd posed as an ordinary consumer when she entered the Beats store. She slipped out of the "public" part of the store and proceeded down a hall to an office whose closed door was marked "Private. No Entry without Authorization from Manager." She entered the office which was unoccupied, looked through files, and located documentary evidence indicating that Beats was indeed involved in an illegal operation. The evidence obtained by Judd furnished the primary basis for drug-smuggling and drug-dealing charges that are now pending against Beats. Beats has filed a pretrial motion asking the court to suppress the evidence obtained by Judd in her search of the office. Should the evidence be suppressed? Why or why not?

Q: Since the exclusionary rule has often resulted in suppression of convincing evidence of crime, it has generated controversy. How has the Supreme Court dealt with this?

Q: Agreements under which corporations avoid formal criminal charges and trials in return for their agreement to pay monetary penalties and submit to outside monitoring of their activities are called: A. non-prosecution agreements. B. plea agreements. C. deferred guaranty agreements. D. deferred prosecution agreements.

Q: Kathy was accused of securities fraud. During the government investigation, she destroyed relevant documents. Under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, Kathy may: A. be civilly but not criminally liable for the destruction of documents. B. face fines but not prison for the destruction of documents. C. face fines and/or a maximum of 20 years in prison. D. be considered a "whistleblower."

Q: Which of the following is a provision of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002? A. It imposed a maximum of 15 years of imprisonment as punishment for the destruction of documents. B. It decreased the maximum term of imprisonment for mail fraud and wire fraud to 15 years. C. It provided legal protection for corporate employees who act as whistleblowers. D. It shortened the statute of limitations period within which certain securities fraud cases may be filed.

Q: The Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act's (RICO's) most controversial sections allow: A. federal prosecutors to seek pretrial orders freezing a defendant's assets. B. the government to seek injunctions against future racketeering activities. C. private individuals to recover treble damages for a statutory violation. D. government intervention in white-collar crimes.

Q: Which of the following characterizes the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA)? A. It is a statute enacted by a state legislature. B. It imposes only civil liabilities in fraud cases. C. It imposes only criminal liabilities in fraud cases. D. It imposes liabilities in cases concerning interstate commerce.

Q: The Double Jeopardy Clause: A. establishes that a person cannot be prosecuted by the state for a state crime after being acquitted of a federal crime, if the two alleged crimes involved essentially the same facts. B. protects criminal defendants from having to undergo more than one prosecution by the same sovereign for the same criminal offense. C. establishes that a single criminal act with multiple victims cannot result in more than one criminal prosecution. D. bars a private plaintiff from pursuing a civil case against the defendant who was criminally prosecuted for the same alleged conduct.

Q: "White-collar crime" is the term used to describe a wide variety of offenses committed by: A. the average working class. B. poor Americans. C. businesspersons. D. juveniles.

Q: The expansion of corporate criminal liability in imputing the criminal intent of employees to the corporation falls under the scope of: A. mens rea. B. presumption of innocence. C. double jeopardy. D. respondeat superior.

Q: Average Corp. was convicted of violating the federal mail fraud statute due to the activities of some of its employees, who had used the U.S. mail to perpetrate a fraudulent scheme designed to advance the otherwise legitimate business interests of Average. Average has appealed, arguing that its conviction should be set aside because the employees in question were relatively minor officials of the company and were acting without the knowledge or consent of any high-level corporate officer. In addition, Average argues that the involved employees were acting in violation of a longstanding and well-known Average policy against fraudulent schemes. Should Average's conviction be set aside? A. Yes, because Average could not have had the necessary mens rea. B. No, because the involved employees were acting within the scope of their employment and for the benefit of Average. C. No, because nothing in the facts indicates that Average should qualify for the protection of the due diligence defense recognized by most courts. D. Yes, because high-level corporate officers must be involved and they were not involved. Here in order for criminal intent to be imputed to the corporation.

Q: Strict liability offenses: A. dispense with the requirement of proof of any criminal intent on the part of the defendant. B. are so classified because the punishments imposed on violators are especially harsh in comparison to the punishments for other criminal offenses. C. impose liability on a defendant for the act of another party. D. are commonly criticized on the ground that a person may not be convicted of such an offense without being shown to have committed a wrongful act.

Q: The _____ Amendment protects against compelled testimonial self-incrimination by establishing that "[n]o person shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself." A. Fifth B. Fourth C. Sixth D. Eighth

Q: Rachael was arrested by the police on suspicion of possession of a controlled substance. She was informed of her Miranda rights. Rachael waived her right to remain silent and confessed to the crime after a brief period of police interrogation. Her confession is: A. admissible, according to Supreme Court precedent. B. inadmissible because it was obtained in violation of her Fourth Amendment rights. C. admissible, according to the "search incident to a lawful arrest" exception to Miranda. D. inadmissible because it was obtained in violation of her Fifth Amendment rights.

Q: Which of the following is guaranteed by the Sixth Amendment? A. The right to remain silent B. The right to a speedy trial by an impartial jury C. The right to refuse custodial interrogation D. The right to refuse unreasonable searches

Q: Which of the following is true about the Fifth Amendment and the production of records? A. It would allow a Bogus Inc., officer who has custody of Bogus records to resist a subpoena demanding production of those records if the contents of the records could incriminate that officer personally. B. It would prevent a sole proprietor from being compelled to produce his/her business records if the act of producing such records was not testimonial in nature. C. It may be asserted by a corporation, partnership, or other collective entity on the same basis that an individual human being could assert it. D. It does not protect "required records" from being subpoenaed and used against the record keeper in criminal prosecutions.

Q: When conducting an investigation of terrorism federal authorities seek warrants from what court? A. FISA court B. Federal District Court for the District of Columbia C. The International Criminal Court D. The UN High Court on Terrorism

Q: Which of the following is a criticism of the U.S.A. Patriot Act? A. It covers a narrow range of activities associated with terrorism. B. It does not permit warrants for "roving" wiretaps. C. It delays the sanctioning of search warrants. D. It gives undue freedom to law enforcement agencies.

Q: Which of the following is true of the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act (FISA)? A. It was enacted as a result of the U.S.A. Patriot Act. B. It has not been amended after its enactment. C. It prohibits surveillance or monitoring without a warrant. D. It has expanded the government's ability to monitor the phone calls of suspected terrorists.

Q: Which of the following characterizes searches? A. It is covered by the Fourteenth Amendment. B. Warrants are not required for a search on private property. C. Consensual searches without warrants violate the Fourth Amendment. D. Customs searches are valid without a warrant.

Q: Which Untied States Supreme Court case indicated that the search incident to arrest exception does not permit a police officer from searching a smart phone of an individual who was arrested without a warrant? A. Riley v. California B. Miranda v. Arizona C. Maryland v. King D. Marbury v. Madison

Q: What is the basic remedial device in cases of Fourth Amendment violations? A. Exclusionary rule B. Due process clause C. Habeas corpus D. Counterclaim

Q: When a court applies the exclusionary rule in a criminal case, it means that: A. the case will be dismissed. B. the defendant will be convicted. C. the evidence will not be admitted at trial. D. an arraignment will not take place.

Q: Assume that an applicable state statute makes it a crime for a private citizen to possess a machine gun. For approximately three weeks, officer Roy Holt had had probable cause to believe that Alex Hood, a private citizen, possessed an arsenal of machine guns in his apartment. Acting on this probable cause but without a warrant, Holt knocked on the door of Hood's apartment and asked Hood if he could come in to talk to him. Hood let Holt in. Then, without Hood's consent, Holt began searching the entire apartment. Holt found several machine guns in the bedroom closet. He arrested Hood for an alleged violation of the statute mentioned above. In a pretrial motion, Hood's attorney has asked that the court apply the exclusionary rule and suppress the evidence yielded by Holt's search of Hood's apartment. Should the evidence be suppressed? A. No, because Holt had probable cause to believe that Hood had the machine guns in his apartment. B. Yes, because the unconsented search did not fall within the exceptions to the general rule that warrantless searches are unreasonable. C. No, because Hood voluntarily allowed Holt to enter the apartment and because the machine guns were in plain view in the closet. D. Yes, because the search, though warrantless, was conducted by an officer who was acting to further the public's safety.

Q: What occurs during an arraignment of a criminal defendant? A. Defendant is informed of charges against them and pleads guilty or not guilty. B. Both the prosecutor and defense select a jury for trial. C. The prosecutor and defense argue over the admissibility of key evidence. D. The jury delivers its verdict of the case.

Q: Which of the following serves essentially the same function as a magistrate's probable cause determination? A. Arraignment B. Special deterrence C. Indictment D. Incapacitation

Q: A(n) _____ is a formal charge signed by the prosecutor outlining the facts supporting the charges against the defendant. A. booking B. indictment C. information D. arraignment

Q: The Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution: A. protects persons against all searches and seizures. B. provides protection to places or items as to which the Court found no reasonable expectations of privacy such as open fields and personal bank records. C. provides protection to matters such as voluntary conversations between criminal defendants and government informants. D. protects persons against arbitrary and unreasonable governmental violations of their privacy rights.

Q: Which of the following would the United States Supreme Court deny there is a reasonable expectation of privacy for items in these locations? A. Private Dwellings B. Offices C. Mail D. Items left in an open field

Q: _____ means that the accused failed to perceive a substantial risk of harm that a reasonable person would have perceived. A. Duress B. Recklessness C. Exculpation D. Negligence

Q: Although not a complete defense to criminal liability, _____ may diminish the degree of a defendant's responsibility in a crime. A. voluntary intoxication B. premeditation C. infancy D. insanity

Q: Assume that a state, acting through the appropriate county prosecutor, plans to initiate a felony prosecution against Joe Beck. Further assume that the state is among those in which felony defendants may be charged by either of the two methods discussed in the text. Which of the following is an accurate statement? A. If a preliminary hearing is held and the judge conducting it concludes that there is probable cause to believe that Beck committed the charged felony, the judge (who presided over the preliminary hearing) will find Beck guilty and sentence him accordingly. B. If the prosecutor decides to follow the information route to initiating the felony prosecution, Beck is entitled to insist that a grand jury be convened to determine whether he should be prosecuted by the state. C. If a preliminary hearing is held, the state must prove Beck's guilt beyond a reasonable doubt in order to carry its burden of proof at the preliminary hearing stage. D. If a preliminary hearing is held and the magistrate conducting it concludes that there is probable cause to believe that Beck committed the charged felony, the magistrate binds over the defendant for trial in the appropriate court.

Q: The standard of proof in a criminal case is: A. proof by a preponderance of the evidence. B. proof beyond a reasonable doubt. C. proof that is "more likely than not." D. proof beyond the presumption of innocence.

Q: Most serious crimes require mens rea, or criminal: A. behavior. B. violation. C. intent. D. prosecution.

Q: The First Amendment limits governmental power to enact and enforce criminal laws by prohibiting: A. warrantless searches. B. arbitrary discrimination among different classes of people. C. cruel and unusual punishments. D. laws that restrict freedom of speech.

Q: Commercial speech receives what form of protection under the First Amendment: A. Intermediate protection B. Full constitutional protection C. Minimal protection D. No protection

Q: The ____ Amendment forbids cruel and unusual punishments. A. First B. Eighth C. Fourteenth D. Fifteenth

Q: The Equal Protection Clause is derived from which amendment to the U.S. Constitution? A. First B. Fourteenth C. Tenth D. Second

Q: According to the law, crimes are statutory offenses; this essentially means that: A. it must be proved that the crime is dangerous or detrimental to society. B. a behavior is not a crime unless a state legislature has criminalized it. C. the prevention of crime should include deterrence and rehabilitation. D. courts may assess punitive damages in order to punish the wrongdoer.

Q: A defendant's act must have been prohibited by statute at the time he/she committed it and the penalty imposed must be the one provided for at the time of his/her offense. This essentially indicates: A. encouragement of deterrence laws. B. the presence of nulla poena sine lege laws. C. prohibition of ex post facto criminal laws. D. the presence of retributive justice.

Q: Infractions: A. involve significant moral culpability on the offender's part. B. are not punishable by fines. C. are a serious crime. D. are not punishable by confinement in jail.

Q: _____ believe that prevention of socially undesirable behavior is the only proper purpose of criminal penalties. A. Utilitarians B. Ethical pragmatists C. Virtue ethicists D. Deontologists

Q: What is recidivism? A. A special theory of deterrence B. A quasi-criminal offense punished by light fines C. Repeat offenses by previously punished offenders D. Attempts to change the behavior of convicted offenders

Q: _____ is the change in the attitudes or values of convicted offenders so that they are not inclined to commit future offenses. A. Recidivism B. Rehabilitation C. Retribution D. Probation

Q: _____ is effectively a conditional sentence that suspends the usual imprisonment and/or fine if the offender "toes the line" and meets other judicially imposed conditions for the period specified by the court. A. Probation B. Retribution C. Prevention D. Rehabilitation

Q: The Fifth Amendment guarantees indigent defendants the right to court-appointed counsel.

Q: Corporations may be held criminally liable even in the absence of proof that high corporate officers ordered or acquiesced in the offense charged.

Q: A(n) _____ is a serious crime such as murder, sexual assault, arson, drug-dealing, or a theft or fraud offense of sufficient magnitude. A. misdemeanor B. felony C. tort D. infraction

Q: In Miranda v. Arizona the United Supreme Court mandated that police officers have to give suspects a warning about their rights.

Q: How can a corporation improve its corporate governance and corporate responsibility?

Q: Carol, a senior manager in Bizlaw Inc., encourages Rob, her junior manager, to bill Bizlaw's clients for his commute time, and identify it as "meet and confer with senior manager." Carol explains that she will then adjust her own billing sheet to match this entry. Carol tells Rob that all other Bizlaw junior and senior managers engage in this practice, and that clients have never questioned such entries. Rob is not sure whether this would be an ethical action. What should Rob do?

Q: Under the U.S.A. PATRIOT Act, the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act (FISA) Court may issue warrants of the "sneak and peek" variety.

Q: A defendant's constitutional right to be free from compelled testimonial self-incrimination not only bars the prosecution from calling him/her as a witness at the trial of a criminal case against him/her, but also bars the plaintiff from calling him/her as a witness at the trial of a civil case against him/her.

Q: The last tactic to adopt in resisting a request to act unethically is to: A. buy time to think about a solution. B. find a mentor and peer group. C. prepare to leave the job. D. find win-win solutions.

Q: Which of the following critical thinking errors is likely to occur among the subordinates if a leader is unethical? A. False analogy B. Bandwagon fallacy C. False cause D. Gambler's fallacy

Q: What two conditions must be met if profit-maximization is to maximize utility?

Q: What three things are seen in the corporate scandals of 2002, such as Enron and WorldCom?

Q: Jack flipped a coin five times and each time it came up heads. His friend Atmel saw this and bet Jack that the next flip would come up tails. Atmel figured that it was overdue for a tails and so tails was a more likely outcome in the next flip. Atmel has fallen prey to: A. sunk cost fallacy. B. reductio ad absurdum. C. argumentum ad hominem. D. gambler's fallacy.

Q: Which of the following is also called the slippery slope fallacy? A. Gambler's fallacy B. Reductio ad absurdum C. Sunk cost fallacy D. Argumentum ad hominem

Q: Bob DeSlob, CEO of Westlake Inc., had supported the development and distribution of the Super Widget, a product that is expensive to make. The Super Widget failed to meet its expected sales. Bob, now, decides to invest more resources to produce and aggressively market the Super Widget, rationalizing that if he did not invest more in the product, what he has invested would be lost. Bob is engaging in: A. sunk cost fallacy. B. argumentum ad baculum. C. argumentum ad hominem. D. reductio ad absurdum.

Q: Bill, a senior manager at Bizlaw Inc., instructs Kim, a mid-level manager, to make false statements on the performance evaluation of Gloria, one of Kim's employees, who recently filed a discrimination claim against Bill. Bill tells Kim, "Look around you. Every manager makes up stories about employees Bizlaw wants to get rid of." Bill's argument illustrates: A. bandwagon fallacy. B. argumentum ad baculum. C. argumentum ad hominem. D. circular reasoning.