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Q:
Which organelle is responsible for the bulk of energy production in the form of ATP?a. chloroplastb. mitochondriac. golgi apparatusd. lysosomee. endoplasmic reticulum
Q:
When viral genetic elements are integrated into the host chromosome and become quiescent, it is referred to as:
a. cytolytic.
b. lysogeny.
c. hemolytic.
d. propagational.
e. autonomy.
Q:
Rough ER are "studded" with:
a. lysosomes.
b. ribosomes.
c. peroxisomes.
d. nucleosomes.
e. all are true.
Q:
Viruses are acellular, but they act as cellular parasites in order to:
a. reproduce.
b. protect themselves.
c. grow in size.
d. gain genetic information.
e. all are true.
Q:
Supramolecular complexes of nucleic acid encapsulated in a protein coat, and in some instances, surrounded by a membrane envelope are called:
a. viruses.
b. plasmids.
c. nucleosomes.
d. ribosomes.
e. all are true.
Q:
Arrays of filaments in eukaryotic cells that give the cell its shape and its capacity to move are called the:
a. plasma membrane.
b. smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
c. cytoskeleton.
d. lysosome.
e. Golgi body.
Q:
All are internal membrane specialized structures of animal cells EXCEPT:
a. lysosome.
b. nucleus.
c. endoplasmic reticulum.
d. mitochondria.
e. chloroplast.
Q:
Composed of peptidoglycan, a rigid framework of polysaccharide cross-linked by short peptide chains, describes what structural feature of a prokaryotic cell?
a. cytosol
b. ribosome
c. nuclear area
d. cell membrane
e. cell wall
Q:
All are true for prokaryotic cells EXCEPT:
a. Some have flagella.
b. They have a simple plasma or cell membrane.
c. They posses a distinct nuclear area, but no nucleus.
d. They have ribosomes, but no mitochondria.
e. All are true.
Q:
All of the following functions of an enzyme are true EXCEPT:
a. Enzymes help to catalyze virtually every metabolic reaction.
b. Enzymes mediate the rates of cellular reaction in proportion to cellular requirements.
c. Enzymes are sensitive to temperature, pH, and concentration changes.
d. An increased activity of an enzyme increases the amount of energy produced.
e. Enzymes are used as a catalyst to increase reaction rates many orders of magnitude.
Q:
Which of the following statements about metabolism is true?
a. Metabolism only occurs inside of organelles.
b. Metabolism is rarely organized into pathways.
c. Metabolism always results in a production of ATP.
d. Metabolism has two components: anabolism and catabolism.
e. Metabolism is characterized by single reactions with large energy releases.
Q:
Biological molecules are functionally active only within a narrow range of environmental conditions with denaturation occurring in all EXCEPT:
a. dramatic increase in temperature.
b. change in ionic strength.
c. refrigeration.
d. addition of strong acid or base.
e. none, all will denature biological macromolecules.
Q:
Which of the following statements regarding molecular recognition is correct?
a. Covalent bonds are a common interaction used in molecular recognition.
b. Molecular recognition takes place only between protein molecules.
c. For molecular recognition to occur, complementarity of the molecules is required.
d. Hydrogen bonds are not effective mediators of molecular recognition due to their low strength.
e. None of the above are correct.
Q:
All of the statements about structural complementarity are true EXCEPT:
a. Weak chemical forces mediate it.
b. It produces strong irreversible interactions.
c. It is the interaction of a biological macromolecule and its ligand.
d. It is the basis of many biological functions.
e. It is the means of recognition in bimolecular interactions.
Q:
Which of the following molecular recognition mechanisms is based upon structural complementarity?
a. interaction of a protein with a metabolite.
b. the association of a strand of DNA with its complementary strand.
c. the ability for a sperm cell to bind to an egg.
d. the binding of a hormone to its receptor.
e. all of the above
Q:
All are true about hydrophobic interactions EXCEPT:
a. Hydrophobic interactions result from the strong tendency of water to exclude nonpolar groups or molecules.
b. Hydrophobic interactions result because water molecules prefer the stronger interactions that they share with one another, compared to their interactions with nonpolar molecules.
c. Hydrophobic interactions result from hydrogen bonds between water and the hydrophobic molecules.
d. The preferential interactions between water molecules "exclude" hydrophobic substances from aqueous solution and drive the tendency of nonpolar molecules to cluster together.
e. Hydrophobic interactions result in nonpolar regions of biological molecules being buried in the molecule's interior to exclude them from the aqueous milieu.
Q:
Electrostatic forces
a. include ionic interactions between negatively charged carboxyl groups and positively charged amino groups.
b. average about 2 kJ/mol in aqueous solutions.
c. typically are directional like hydrogen bonds.
d. require a precise fit like van der Waals interactions.
e. include ionic, induced dipole and permanent dipole interactions.
Q:
Which of the statements about the nature of the hydrogen bond is true?
a. The donor is a hydrogen atom bonded to a carbon.
b. The more linear the bond, the stronger the interaction.
c. The acceptor must be similar in electronegativity to hydrogen.
d. It is a type of covalent bond.
e. A hydrogen bond is weaker than van der Waals forces.
Q:
Which of the following is a true statement about non-covalent bonds?
a. They are all the result of electron sharing.
b. Hydrogen bonds, ionic bond and hydrophobic interactions all carry a degree of specificity while van der Waals interactions are induced.
c. All noncovalent bonds are formed between oppositely charged polar functions.
d. Van der Waals interactions are not affected by structural complementarity, while hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds and hydrophobic interaction are affected by structural complementarity.
e. Hydrogen, van der Waals, and hydrophobic interactions do not form linear bonds.
Q:
Weak forces that create constantly forming and breaking interactions at physiological temperatures, but cumulatively impart stability to biological structures generated by their collective activity include all EXCEPT:
a. hydrogen bonds
b. van der Waals forces
c. covalent bonds
d. ionic interactions
e. hydrophobic interactions
Q:
Which of the following properly ranks the non-covalent interactions in order of increasing strength?
a. ionic, hydrogen bond, van der Waals
b. van der Waals, hydrogen bond, ionic
c. van der Waals, ionic, hydrogen bond
d. hydrogen bond, van der Waals, ionic
e. cannot be determined since ionic interactions and hydrogen bonds often vary in strength
Q:
All of the following are properties of membranes EXCEPT:
a. supramolecular assemblies.
b. define boundaries of cellular components.
c. spontaneous assemblies resulting from hydrophobic interactions.
d. identical protein and lipid composition in the major organelles.
e. none, all are true.
Q:
Membrane structures are maintained primarily by:
a. hydrophobic interactions.
b. covalent bonds.
c. hydrogen bonds.
d. non-spontaneous assembly.
e. ionic interactions.
Q:
Organelles have what three attributes?
a. Only in prokaryotic cells, membrane bound, have a dedicated set of tasks.
b. Only in eukaryotic cells, membrane bound, have a dedicated set of tasks.
c. Only in eukaryotic cells, seldom membrane bound, have a dedicated set of tasks.
d. Only in prokaryotic cells, membrane bound, multi-functional.
e. In both prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells, membrane bound, have a dedicated set of tasks.
Q:
The structural integrity of supramolecular complexes (assemblies) of multiple components are bonded to each other by all of the following forces EXCEPT:
a. covalent bonds
b. van der Waals forces
c. hydrogen bonds
d. hydrophobic interactions
e. ionic interactions
Q:
From the major precursors, the complex biomolecules are made in which sequence?
a. metabolites, building blocks, macromolecules, supramolecular complexes
b. macromolecules, building blocks, metabolites, supramolecular complexes
c. building blocks, macromolecules, supramolecular complexes, metabolites
d. metabolites, macromolecules, building blocks, supramolecular complexes
e. metabolites, building blocks, supramolecular complexes, macromolecules
Q:
The major precursors for the formation of biomolecules include all EXCEPT:
a. nitrate and dinitrogen.
b. water.
c. carbon dioxide.
d. ammonium ion.
e. none, all are major precursors.
Q:
What makes carbon such an abundant element in biomolecules?
a. It can form up to five bonds by sharing its electrons.
b. It forms only single bonds.
c. It provides low bond energy.
d. It forms stable covalent bonds by electron pair sharing.
e. It does not usually bond to other carbons, allowing a more diverse combination of elements.
Q:
Which are the four most common elements in the human body?
a. hydrogen, calcium, oxygen and sodium
b. hydrogen, oxygen, iron and carbon
c. hydrogen, oxygen, carbon and nitrogen
d. oxygen, carbon, iron and nitrogen
e. oxygen, silicon, calcium and nitrogen
Q:
All of the following activities require the presence of ATP or NADPH EXCEPT:
a. osmoregulation.
b. biosynthesis.
c. movement of muscles.
d. light emission.
e. none, they are all energy-requiring activities.
Q:
Even though the building blocks have fairly simple structures, macromolecules are exquisitely organized in their intricate three-dimensional architecture known as:
a. configuration.
b. conformation.
c. sequence.
d. Lewis structure.
e. structural maturation.
Q:
All are distinctive properties of living systems EXCEPT:
a. Living organisms are relatively simple.
b. Biological structures play a role in the organism's existence.
c. The living state is characterized by the flow of energy through the organism.
d. Living organisms are highly organized.
e. Living organisms are actively engaged in energy transformation.
Q:
Overall, catabolic reactions
A) release energy.
B) take in energy.
C) occur mainly in the liver.
D) occur outside the cell membrane.
E) take place in the nucleus of the cell.
Q:
The process of building up new molecules in the cell is called
A) metabolism.
B) catabolism.
C) anabolism.
D) glycolysis.
E) transamination.
Q:
The process by which complex molecules are broken down into simpler ones for the body's use is called
A) metabolism.
B) catabolism.
C) anabolism.
D) glucogenesis.
E) gluconeogenesis.
Q:
Which of the following does not require energy from ATP hydrolysis?
A) digestion
B) muscle contraction
C) transport across cell membranes
D) sending nerve signals
E) synthesis of an enzyme
Q:
A compound that is formed in a metabolic oxidation is called a(n)
A) product.
B) enzyme.
C) metabolite.
D) food.
E) cofactor.
Q:
Which of the following is true for prokaryotic cells?
A) They are more complex than eukaryotic cells.
B) They are larger than eukaryotic cells.
C) They contain mitochondria.
D) They are found in animals.
E) They do not contain a nucleus.
Q:
Adenine is a purine.
Q:
Protease inhibitors, which are effective anti-HIV drugs,
A) are nucleoside analogs.
B) prevent reverse transcription.
C) prevent synthesis of viral proteins.
D) prevent mRNA synthesis.
E) prevent activation of tRNA.
Q:
A virus that contains RNA as its genetic material is a
A) genetically engineered virus.
B) bacteria.
C) recombinant DNA.
D) retrovirus.
E) vaccine.
Q:
Small living particles, with 3 to 200 genes, that cannot replicate without a host cell are called
A) recombinant DNAs.
B) viruses.
C) bacteria.
D) tumors.
E) plasmids.
Q:
A restriction enzyme functions to
A) prevent the DNA from leaving the nucleus.
B) limit the number of replications a DNA molecule can achieve.
C) cut a large DNA double helix into smaller fragments.
D) stop the elongation step of protein synthesis.
E) eliminate a virus from a cell.
Q:
The polymerase chain reaction is used in
A) preparing recombinant DNA.
B) transcription.
C) DNA fingerprinting.
D) translation.
E) replication.
Q:
The insertion of new DNA into the plasmid DNA of a bacterium produces
A) viral DNA.
B) DNA fingerprints.
C) recombinant DNA.
D) ribosomes.
E) restriction enzymes.
Q:
Which of the following is used in the preparation of recombinant DNA?
A) RNA polymerase
B) DNA polymerase
C) repressor protein
D) restriction enzyme
E) enzyme induction
Q:
The purpose of the human genome project was to
A) identify genes responsible for noninheritable diseases.
B) determine how to clone human DNA.
C) identify substrates for the polymerase chain reaction.
D) learn how to clone bacterial DNA.
E) map the locations of all the genes in human DNA.
Q:
DNA fingerprinting uses ________ to produce DNA fragments that can be separated and screened for the presence of genetic diseases.
A) extracellular DNA
B) restriction enzymes
C) bacterial plasmids
D) anticodons
E) codons
Q:
One therapeutic product now available due to recombinant DNA technology is
A) measles vaccine.
B) penicillin.
C) human growth hormone.
D) sulfamethoxazole.
E) tamoxifen.
Q:
Recombinant DNA technology requires the use of bacterial
A) plasmids.
B) mitochondria.
C) endoplasmic reticulum.
D) ribosomes.
E) cell walls.
Q:
In the study of genetics, the abbreviation PCR refers to
A) purine chain repression.
B) pyrimidine complement restriction.
C) purine coded ribose.
D) protein combination and replication.
E) polymerase chain reaction.
Q:
When a mutation occurs by elimination of one base in a DNA sequence, this mutation is called a
A) deletion mutation.
B) retrovirus insertion.
C) substitution mutation.
D) translocation mutation.
E) viral mutation.
Q:
The result of a defective enzyme caused by a mutation in the DNA nucleotide sequence is
A) a genetic disease.
B) AIDS.
C) HIV.
D) recombinant DNA.
E) translocation.
Q:
Mutations are the result of
A) alterations in the phosphate of the DNA backbone.
B) exposure to water in utero.
C) physical trauma in the mother's childhood.
D) alterations in the sugar component of the DNA backbone.
E) alterations in the DNA base sequence.
Q:
Identify each of the following metabolic pathways.A) lipogenesisB) transaminationC) oxidative deaminationD) oxidationE) ketogenesis1> the conversion of fatty acids to 2-carbon units of acetyl CoA2> the conversion of an amino acid to an -keto acid3> the combination of 2-carbon units of acetyl CoA to form fatty acids4> the removal of an amino group as NH4+ from glutamate to yield -ketoglutarate5> the production of ketone bodies
Q:
Match the following.A) FADB) chylomicronsC) essential amino acidD) ATPE) a ketogenic amino acidF) Coenzyme A.G) ketone bodiesH) transaminated amino acidI) GTPJ) alkalosisK) acidosisL) a glucogenic amino acidM) oxidation1> compounds produced when there is little or no carbohydrate metabolism and a subsequent increase in fat metabolism2> a carrier of electrons to the site of ATP production, from oxidation reactions involving carbon-carbon double bonds3> lipoproteins formed from triacylglycerols and protein4> an amino acid that is not synthesized in the body5> a major step in fatty acid degradation6> an amino acid producing carbons for glucose production7> a condition of low blood pH8> the products of ketogenesis9> the main source of energy in the body10> a carrier of 2-carbon units in fatty acid degradation
Q:
Nonessential amino acids can be made by transamination.
Q:
The amino acid valine enters the citric acid cycle as succinyl CoA.
Q:
The urea cycle is the major pathway for eliminating the excess nitrogen from amino acid degradation.
Q:
Ammonium ions and carbon dioxide produce urea in the urea cycle.
Q:
The overall process of synthesizing and breaking down proteins is called protein turnover.
Q:
Some amino acids can be converted into others via transamination.
Q:
Protein digestion begins in the small intestine.
Q:
Acyl carrier protein is used in fatty acid synthesis.
Q:
A low level of acetyl CoA in the cell leads to ketogenesis.
Q:
The production of new triacylglycerols is termed ketogenesis.
Q:
A ten carbon saturated fatty acid will produce five acetyl CoAs.
Q:
Each acetyl CoA that enters the citric acid cycle yields 10 ATP.
Q:
A ten carbon saturated fatty acid will undergo five β oxidation cycles.
Q:
β oxidation adds two-carbon segments to a fatty acid chain.
Q:
Chylomicrons consist of bile salts and lipids.
Q:
Red blood cells have mitochondria, which serve as an energy production site.
Q:
Fatty acids can be used in the brain as an energy source.
Q:
All of the nonessential amino acids can be synthesized in the body by transamination, using an amino group fromA) glutamate.B) -ketoglutarate.C) pyruvate.D) oxaloacetate.E) lactic acid.
Q:
Which metabolic substrate can be produced from the carbon atoms in the amino acid valine?
A) pyruvate
B) succinyl CoA
C) acetoacetyl CoA
D) fumarate
Q:
Which metabolic substrate can be produced from the carbon atoms in the amino acid phenylalanine?
A) pyruvate
B) succinyl CoA
C) acetoacetyl CoA
D) fumarate
Q:
Which metabolic substrate can be produced from the carbon atoms in the amino acid lysine?
A) pyruvate
B) succinyl CoA
C) acetoacetyl CoA
D) fumarate
Q:
In the urea cycle, argininosuccinase synthase catalyzes the reaction of arginosuccunate to
A) citurulline.
B) carbomyl phosphate.
C) orthinine.
D) arginine.
E) arginase.
Q:
In mammals, the ammonium ion produced in oxidative deamination is
A) excreted in the feces.
B) stored in the liver.
C) converted to uric acid, which is excreted in the urine.
D) converted to urea, which is excreted in the urine.
E) converted to uric acid, which is excreted by the liver.
Q:
Which of the following does NOT require NAD+?A) glycolysisB) transaminationC) citric acid cycleD) oxidationE) oxidative deamination