Q&A Hero

Q: _____ involves determining which risks are likely to affect a project and documenting the characteristics of each.a. Identifying risks b. Planning risk managementc. Performing qualitative risk analysis d. Performing quantitative risk analysis

Q: The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward isa. risk appetite b. risk tolerancec. risk utility d. unknown risk

Q: _____ involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project.a. Identifying risks b. Planning risk managementc. Performing qualitative risk analysis d. Performing quantitative risk analysis

Q: A _____ person achieves a balance between risk and payoff.a. risk-seeking b. risk-aversec. risk-fearing d. risk-neutral

Q: Those who are _____ have a higher tolerance for risk, and their satisfaction increases when more payoff is at stake.a. risk-seeking b. risk-aversec. risk-neutral d. risk-indifferent

Q: Risk utility rises at a decreasing rate for a _____ person.a. risk-seeking b. risk-aversec. risk-neutral d. risk-indifferent

Q: The risk register can be created with a simple Microsoft Word or Excel file. a. True b. False

Q: Identified risks may not materialize, or their probabilities of occurrence or loss may diminish. a. True b. False

Q: The Monte Carlo analysis can predict the probability of finishing by a certain date or the probability that the cost will be equal to or less than a certain value. a. True b. False

Q: The lower the earned monetary value calculation for a project, the chances of project success is higher. a. True b. False

Q: Quantitative risk analysis need not be done for projects that are large and complex. a. True b. False

Q: The Microsoft Solution Framework (MSF) includes a risk management model that includes developing and monitoring a top-ten master list of risks. a. True b. False

Q: Top Ten Risk Item Tracking is a quantitative risk analysis tool. a. True b. False

Q: A probability/impact matrix or chart lists the relative probability of a risk occurring on one side of a matrix or axis on a chart and the relative impact of the risk occurring on the other. a. True b. False

Q: Risk events refer to specific, certain events that may occur to the detriment or enhancement of the project. a. True b. False

Q: The Delphi technique is a systematic, interactive forecasting procedure based on independent and anonymous input regarding future events. a. True b. False

Q: The psychology literature shows that individuals, working alone, produce fewer ideas than the same individuals produce through brainstorming in small, face-to-face groups. a. True b. False

Q: Brainstorming is a systematic, interactive forecasting procedure based on independent and anonymous input regarding future events. a. True b. False

Q: Contingency plans are predefined actions that the project team will take if an identified risk event occurs. a. True b. False

Q: The last step in project risk management is deciding how to address this knowledge area for a particular project by performing risk management planning. a. True b. False

Q: Unknown risks can be managed proactively. a. True b. False

Q: A risk-seeking person prefers outcomes that are more uncertain and is often willing to pay a penalty to take risks. a. True b. False

Q: One possible response to managing negative risk it to accept the potential effects from the risk. a. True b. False

Q: Risks can have both negative and positive effects on meeting project objectives. a. True b. False

Q: What are the guidelines for conducting effective meetings?

Q: What is performance reporting? What are some methods used for performance reporting?

Q: How do you determine the number of communications channels? How does the number of people involved in a project affect this value? How can project managers control this value?

Q: Describe the concepts of informal methods for distributing information. How do they compare to formal methods for distributing information?

Q: What are the three main processes in project communications management? Briefly describe each process.

Q: Microsoft Office Enterprise Project Management Solution has a(n) _____ tool that provides a centralized and consolidated view of programs and projects.

Q: A(n) _____ allows users to create custom Web sites to access documents and applications stored on shared devices.

Q: A(n) _____ forces meeting organizers to plan the meeting and gives potential participants the chance to decide whether they need to attend.

Q: All meetings must have a(n) _____ and intended outcome.

Q: A(n) _____ can be a vehicle for fostering team building and reinforcing expectations, roles, relationships, and commitment to the project.

Q: The main goal of controlling communications is to ensure the optimal flow of information throughout the entire _____.

Q: An important technique for _____ is the status review meeting.

Q: _____ often create consolidated progress reports based on the information received from team members.

Q: _____ are normally provided as status reports or progress reports.

Q: While trying to assess commitment of project stakeholders, a(n) _____ meeting or a Web conference might be the most appropriate medium to use.

Q: _____ communication happens when two or more people to exchange information via meetings, phone calls, or video conferencing.

Q: The _____ analysis includes information such as the contact person for the information, when the information is due, and the preferred format for the information.

Q: A(n) _____ must include suggested methods or technologies for conveying the information.

Q: A(n) _____ is a document that guides project communications.

Q: Many information technology professionals work on _____ projects where they never meet their project sponsors, other team members, or other project stakeholders.

Q: Project managers should try to _____ the size of teams or sub teams to avoid making communications too complex.

Q: _____ can create communication problems; words may have different meanings in different languages.

Q: _____ monitoring and controlling project communications to ensure that stakeholder communication needs are met.

Q: The outputs of the _____ process are communications management plan and project documents updates.

Q: Many experts agree that the greatest threat to the success of any project, especially information technology projects, is a failure to _____.

Q: _____ are a complete set of organized project records that provide an accurate history of the project.a. Project archives b. Forecastsc. Project plans d. Project notes

Q: The items discussed in a(n) _____ include reflections on whether project goals were met, whether the project was successful or not, the causes of variances on the project, the reasoning behind corrective actions chosen, the use of different project management tools and techniques, and personal words of wisdom based on team members' experiences.a. final project report b. design documentc. audit report d. lessons-learned report

Q: Which of the following is a guideline that project managers should follow when communicating with their teams through e-mail? a. Always reply to all the people to whom the initial message was sent. b. If the entire message can fit in the subject line, put it there. c. Minimize the total number of e-mails by including as many subjects as possible in a single e-mail. d. Continue replying to e-mail messages without changing the subject line to maintain continuity.

Q: The _____ line for any e-mail messages you write should clearly state the intention of the e-mail.a. to b. fromc. subject d. cc

Q: A(n) _____ is a Web site that enables anyone who accesses it to contribute or modify Web page content.a. intranet b. blogc. forum d. wiki

Q: E-mail communication is most suited for: a. assessing commitment to a project. b. building consensus among disputing parties. c. mediating a conflict between multiple parties. d. communicating routine information.

Q: Which of the following questions is typically addressed by a project forecast? a. How much more money will be needed to complete the project? b. Does the quality of output match our goals? c. Are our clients satisfied with the speed and quality of work on this project? d. How comfortable are employees with the software and technology being used on the project?

Q: ____ predict future project status and progress based on past information and trends.a. Progress reports b. Status reportsc. Forecasts d. Project updates

Q: ____ describe what the project team has accomplished during a certain period.a. Progress reports b. Status reportsc. Forecasts d. Lessons-learned reports

Q: ____ describe where the project stands at a specific point in time.a. Progress reports b. Status reportsc. Forecasts d. Lessons-learned reports

Q: _____ address where the project stands in terms of meeting scope, time, and cost goals.a. Technical reports b. Status reportsc. Progress reports d. Lessons-learned reports

Q: According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) _____ is the most inappropriate medium for addressing negative behavior.a. voice mail b. e-mailc. meeting d. Web Site

Q: According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) _____ is the most appropriate medium for giving complex instructions.a. phone call b. e-mailc. meeting d. Web Site

Q: Which of the following communication methods would be most appropriate for assessing the commitment of project stakeholders?a. Wikis b. E-mailc. Web sites d. Meetings

Q: According to the guidelines provided by Practical Communications, Inc., a(n) _____ is a medium that is "excellent" for encouraging creative thinking.a. phone call b. e-mailc. meeting d. Web Site

Q: Which of the following is true of push communication? a. Information is sent only to recipients who request the information. b. This method ensures that the information is understood by recipients. c. Information is sent to recipients without their request. d. This method ensures that the information is received by the recipients.

Q: An example of pull communication is _____.a. meetings b. video conferencingc. voice mails d. blogs

Q: An example of push communication is _____.a. meetings b. video conferencingc. voice mails d. blogs

Q: A team has 10 communication channels between its various members. Using the formula number of communication channels = n (n-1)/2, where n is the number of people in the team, the team has _____ members.a. 5 b. 3c. 2 d. 10

Q: Using the formula for calculating the number of communication channels, how many channels would five people require?a. 9 b. 10c. 11 d. 14

Q: Using the formula for calculating the number of communication channels, how many channels would two people require?a. 1 b. 2c. 3 d. 4

Q: The formula to determine the number of communication channels is _____, where n is the number of people involved.a. n (n-1)/2 b. n(n+1)/2c. n (n+1)/n(n-1) d. n(n-1)/n(n+1)

Q: As the number of people involved in a project _____, the complexity of communications _____.a. increases, decreases b. decreases, increasesc. increases, stays constant d. increases, increases

Q: According to research by Albert Mehrabian, which of the following is NOT a way thatinformation is communicated in a face-to-face interaction?a. body language b. facial expressionc. spoken content d. tone of voice

Q: Which of the following methods of communication is likely to be most effective for conveying sensitive or important information? a. Short face-to-face meetings b. E-mails c. Telephone conversations d. Reading reports from other team members

Q: As a manager, you want to praise a team member, Phil, for doing a good job on a particular project. However, you know that Phil tends to be an introvert. Which of the following communication methods would Phil be most comfortable with? a. Call Phil in for a private meeting to appreciate his work. b. Call a team meeting to praise Phil for his work on the project. c. Announce Phil's accomplishment on the company Web site. d. Have top management and the other teams in the company award Phil.

Q: Managing communications is part of the _____ process of the project communication management.a. closing b. executingc. planning d. monitoring and controlling

Q: The output of the _____ process is a communications management plan.a. managing communications b. reporting performancec. controlling communications d. planning communications

Q: _____ involves determining the information and communications needs of the stakeholders.a. Strategic planning b. Systems managementc. Identifying stakeholders d. Planning communications

Q: Improving an organization's ability to communication is an easy process. a. True b. False

Q: The project summary report is a summary of all the lessons-learned reports. a. True b. False