Q&A Hero

Q: _____ are the system's special characteristics that appeal to users.a. Features b. Outputsc. Yields d. Metrics

Q: _____ is the degree to which a system performs its intended function.a. Reliability b. Validityc. Maintainability d. Functionality

Q: _____ is a technique that helps identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcome of a process.a. Design of experiments b. Backward passc. Activity-on-arrow d. Crashing

Q: Validated changes and validated deliverables are the outputs of the _____ subprocess of project quality management.a. initiating b. closingc. monitoring and controlling d. executing

Q: Performing quality assurance is a subprocess of the _____ process of project quality management.a. initiating b. closingc. monitoring and controlling d. executing

Q: The _____ process is often associated with the technical tools and techniques of quality management, such as Pareto charts, quality control charts, and statistical sampling.a. quality planning b. quality certificationc. quality assurance d. quality control

Q: A _____ is a standard of measurement in quality management.a. milestone b. metricc. merge d. matrix

Q: Process improvement plan, quality metrics, and quality checklists are the outputs of the _____ process of project quality management.a. controlling quality b. planning quality managementc. quality certification d. performing quality assurance

Q: _____ means that a product can be used as it was intended.a. Conformance to requirements b. Fitness for usec. Critical chain scheduling d. Free slack

Q: _____ means the project's processes and products meet written specifications.a. Conformance to requirements b. Fitness for usec. Project feasibility d. Benchmarking

Q: Gantt charts cannot be used to aid project quality management. a. True b. False

Q: Frameworks for helping organizations improve their processes and system are called Six Sigma charts. a. True b. False

Q: DeMarco and Lister's study on organizations and productivity found direct correlations between productivity and programming language, years of experience, and salary. a. True b. False

Q: In TQC, product quality is more important than production rates, and workers are allowed to stop production whenever a quality problem occurs. a. True b. False

Q: Integration testing involves testing of each individual component to ensure that it is as defect-free as possible. a. True b. False

Q: Testing as a stage is important only at the end of an information technology product development. a. True b. False

Q: The term sigma means median. a. True b. False

Q: The Six Sigma approach works best for a project where a quality problem is identified between the current and desired performance. a. True b. False

Q: Using Six Sigma principles is an organization-wide commitment and all employees must embrace its principles. a. True b. False

Q: A run chart is a bar graph that depicts data points and their order of occurrence. a. True b. False

Q: Products that are accepted by project stakeholders are considered to be validated deliverables. a. True b. False

Q: Only in-house auditors can perform quality audits. a. True b. False

Q: Project managers are ultimately responsible for quality management on their projects. a. True b. False

Q: Reliability is the ability of a product or service to perform as expected under deviant conditions. a. True b. False

Q: Customer requirements are an important aspect of the quality planning process. a. True b. False

Q: The design of experiments technique cannot be applied to project management issues such as cost and schedule trade-offs. a. True b. False

Q: Validated changes and validated deliverables are the outputs of the quality assurance process. a. True b. False

Q: The quality assurance process involves taking responsibility for quality throughout the project's life cycle. a. True b. False

Q: Earned value management involves calculating three values for each activity or summary activity from a project's WBS. Describe each of these three values with examples.

Q: Describe three tools used in developing a good cost estimate.

Q: What are the three basic types of cost estimating? Describe each type.

Q: What are tangible and intangible costs? Distinguish between direct and indirect costs and give examples of each.

Q: List and briefly describe the four project cost management processes.

Q: The cost performance index can be used to calculate the _____ which gives an approximate cost of completing a project based on performance to date.

Q: The _____ index is the ratio of earned value to planned value.

Q: The _____ is based on the original planned costs for the project or activity and the rate at which the team is completing work on the project or activity to date.

Q: The total direct and indirect costs incurred in accomplishing work on an activity during a given period is known as the _____.

Q: The _____ is the portion of the approved total cost estimate planned to be spent on an activity during a given period.

Q: The ratio of actual work completed to the percentage of work planned to have been completed at any given time during the life of the project or activity is known as the _____.

Q: A(n)_____ is the original project plan plus approved changes.

Q: _____ is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope, time, and cost data.

Q: In addition to providing input for budgetary estimates, the process of _____ provides a cost baseline.

Q: A cost management plan is a subsidiary of the _____ plan.

Q: A(n) _____ is a time-phased budget that project managers use to measure and monitor cost performance.

Q: Project cost estimates are allocated to work items which are based on the activities in the _____ for the project.

Q: ________ are a means of measuring software size based on what the software does for end users.

Q: In practice, many people find that using a combination or hybrid approach involving analogous, bottom up, and/or parametric modeling provides the best _____.

Q: The timeframe for a(n) _____ estimate is often three or more years prior to project completion.

Q: A(n) _____ estimate is done very early in a project or even before a project is officially started.

Q: Project costs, like project schedules, grow out of the basic documents that initiate a project, like the _____.

Q: The _____ theory states that when many items are produced repetitively, the unit cost of those items decreases in a regular pattern as more units are produced.

Q: Project managers must conduct cash flow analysis to determine _____.

Q: _____ costing considers the total cost of ownership, or development plus support costs, for a project.

Q: _____ costing helps to see a big-picture view of the cost of a project throughout its life cycle.

Q: _____ are revenues minus expenditures.

Q: The main outputs of the _____ process are a cost performance baseline, project funding requirements, and project document updates.

Q: The main outputs of the _____ process are activity cost estimates, basis of estimates, and project document updates.

Q: The main output of the planning cost management process is a(n) _____.

Q: Accountants define _____ as a resource sacrificed or foregone to to achieve a specific objective.

Q: The additional percentage or dollar amount by which actual costs exceed estimates is known as a(n) _____.

Q: Which of the following is true of the schedule performance index (SPI)? a. It can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project. b. It means that a project is behind schedule if an SPI is greater than one. c. It means that a project is ahead of schedule if SPI is lesser than one or hundred percent. d. It is the ratio of planned value to actual costs.

Q: The cost performance index (CPI): a. indicates that a project is under budget if CPI is less than one. b. can be used to estimate the projected cost of completing the project. c. indicates that the planned and actual costs are equal if CPI is more than one. d. is the ratio of earned value to planned value.

Q: Schedule variance is: a. the earned value minus the planned value. b. the earned value minus the actual cost. c. the planned value plus the earned value. d. the planned value plus the rate of performance.

Q: Cost variance is: a. the planned value plus actual costs. b. the earned value minus the actual cost. c. the rate of performance minus earned value. d. the planned value minus the rate of performance.

Q: Variances are calculated by subtracting the actual cost from _____.a. earned value b. schedule variancec. planned value d. rate of performance

Q: Which of the following is true of earned value? a. It is the actual cost plus the planned cost. b. It is based solely on the total cost estimate to be spent on an activity. c. It is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed. d. It is also known as the planned value.

Q: The budget is one of the three values of earned value management and is also known as _____.a. earned value b. actual costc. indirect cost d. planned value

Q: Which of the following is an input of the process of controlling costs?a. Cost forecasts b. Work performance datac. Change requests d. Scope baseline

Q: Which of the following is an output of the process of controlling costs?a. Cost forecasts b. Project funding requirementsc. Basis of estimates d. Scope baselines

Q: The main goal of the _____ process is to produce a cost baseline for measuring project performance and project funding requirements.a. cost budgeting b. cost planningc. cost controlling d. cost estimating

Q: If the cost estimate for a project is a basis for contract awards and performance reporting, it should be a(n) _____ estimate and as accurate as possible.a. budgetary b. definitivec. rough order of magnitude d. analogous

Q: Which of the following is most likely to be a reason for inaccuracies in information technology cost estimates? a. Estimates take a long time to be worked out. b. People lack estimating experience. c. Human beings are biased toward overestimation. d. Only software development provides the scope for estimates to be accurate.

Q: _____ uses project characteristics in a mathematical model to estimate project costs.a. Rough order of magnitude estimating b. Parametric estimatingc. Bottom-up estimating d. Analogous estimating

Q: Which of the following is true of bottom-up estimates? a. They are based on the actual cost of a previous, similar project. b. They are also known as parametric estimating. c. They are most accurate when they involve large, extensive work items. d. They are time-intensive and expensive to develop.

Q: A cost estimation tool which involves estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total is known as a(n) _____ estimate.a. budgetary b. parametricc. bottom-up d. analogous

Q: Which of the following is true of analogous estimates? a. Their main disadvantage is that they cost more than other techniques. b. They are the only technique which do not require expert judgement. c. They are most reliable when previous projects are similar in fact with current projects. d. They use project characteristics in a mathematical model to estimate project costs.

Q: Analogous estimates are also known as _____ estimates.a. bottom-up b. top-downc. parametric d. budgetary

Q: Which of the following types of estimate use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project?a. Definitive estimates b. Parametric estimatesc. Bottom-up estimates d. Analogous estimates

Q: A _____ estimate is used for making many purchasing decisions for which accurate estimates are required and for estimating final project costs.a. budgetary b. definitivec. rough order of magnitude d. final

Q: A cost estimation tool which is used to allocate money into an organization's budget is known as a _____ estimate.a. budgetary b. definitivec. rough order of magnitude d. ballpark