Q&A Hero

Q: A(n) _____ describes how things should be done.

Q: _____ the project includes work required to introduce any new hardware, software, and procedures into normal operations.

Q: The ideal outcome of the _____ process group is to complete a project successfully by delivering the agreed-upon project scope within time, cost, and quality constraints.

Q: _____ progress from initiation activities to planning activities, executing activities, monitoring and controlling activities, and closing activities.

Q: A(n)_____ is a series of actions directed toward a particular result.

Q: A _____ is an important Scrum artifact used to graphically display progress on each sprint during the monitoring and controlling process.a. WBS b. sprint backlogc. burndown chart d. product backlog

Q: A _____ is usually not necessary to the Scrum method.a. team contract b. velocity estimatec. Gantt chart d. product backlog

Q: The improvement of the product and process in the Scrum method is discussed at the _____.a. sprint reflection meeting b. sprint review meetingc. kick-off meeting d. daily Scrum meeting

Q: Which of the following activities is a part of the planning process of the Scrum? a. Determining how many sprints will compose each release b. Demonstrating the product during a sprint review meeting c. Completing tasks each day during sprints d. Creating sprint backlog

Q: Which of the following project parameters would be compatible with the use of the agile approach? a. Projects with inexperienced and dispersed teams b. Projects that have a fairly rigid completion date c. Projects with clear-up front requirements d. Projects that have more flexible scheduling

Q: Which of the following is true about the agile method? a. It is often used when a project team can express the scope early in the product life cycle. b. It is used when a project team wants to provide a potentially shippable product earlier rather than later. c. It uses several iterations or deliveries of software instead of waiting until the end of the project to provide a product. d. It is used when project teams want to use the predicative approach to a project.

Q: Organizational process assets update is the output of the closing process of _____.a. project integration management b. project quality managementc. project procurement management d. project time management

Q: The _____ process involves gaining stakeholder and customer acceptance of the final products and services and bringing the project, or project phase, to an orderly end.a. executing b. closingc. planning d. monitoring

Q: _____ includes measuring progress toward project objectives and taking corrective action to match progress with the plan.a. Planning b. Montioring and controllingc. Executing d. Initiating

Q: Enterprise environmental factors are an output of the executing process of _____.a. project integration management b. project quality managementc. project human resource management d. project procurement management

Q: _____ are an output of the executing process of project integration management.a. Deliverables b. Issue logsc. Resource calendars d. Enterprise environmental factor updates

Q: The _____ provides a basis for creating the project schedule and performing earned value management for measuring and forecasting project performance.a. scope statement b. cost management planc. work breakdown structure d. project charter

Q: Which of the following is a planning process associated with project scope management?a. Collecting requirements b. Performing qualitative risk analysisc. Planning schedule management d. Estimating costs

Q: The most difficult and unappreciated process in project management is oftena. initiating b. planningc. executing d. monitoring and controlling

Q: The project management plan is the output of the planning process of project _____.a. integration management b. quality managementc. scope management d. procurement management

Q: The main purpose of project plans is toa. schedule management plans b. define project scopec. estimate activity resources d. guide project execution

Q: One of the main outputs of the initiation process is _____.a. creating the work breakdown structure b. selecting the project managerc. developing the project charter d. identifying the project sponsor

Q: Which of the following is a pre-initiation task?a. Drawing up a work breakdown structure b. Developing a business case for a projectc. Drafting the project charter d. Identifying stakeholders

Q: _____ is an iterative software development process that focuses on team productivity and delivers software best practices to all team members.a. Agile Unified Process b. Dynamic Systems Development Methodc. Rational Unified Process d. Six Sigma

Q: The project stakeholder management knowledge area maps to the ______ process group by identifying stakeholders.a. initiating b. planningc. executing d. monitoring and controlling

Q: The project cost management knowledge area maps to the _____ process group through the activities of estimating costs and budget determination.a. initiating b. planningc. executing d. monitoring and controlling

Q: _____ is a planning process that is within the Project Scope Management knowledge area.a. Schedule development b. Developing a project management planc. Creation of a WBS d. Quality planning

Q: Developing a _____ is a planning process that occurs in the Project Integration Management knowledge area.a. schedule management plan b. project management planc. WBS d. quality management

Q: The project time management knowledge area maps to the _____ process group through the activity of schedule control.a. initiating b. planningc. executing d. monitoring and controlling

Q: The project scope management knowledge area maps to the _____ process group through the activities of scope validation and scope control.a. initiating b. planningc. executing d. monitoring and controlling

Q: The project integration management knowledge area maps to the _____ process group through the activities of developing project charters.a. initiating b. planningc. executing d. monitoring and controlling

Q: During _____ processes for a new project, the organization recognizes that a new project exists, and completes a project charter as part of this recognition.a. initiating b. planningc. opening d. controlling

Q: Administrative activities, such as archiving project files, closing out contracts, documenting lessons learned, and receiving formal acceptance of the delivered work as part of the phase or project, are often involved in _____ processes.a. monitoring and controlling b. executingc. initiating d. closing

Q: A common _____ process is reporting performance, where project stakeholders can identify any necessary changes that may be required to keep the project on track.a. executing b. closingc. monitoring and controlling d. planning

Q: Examples of _____ processes include acquiring and developing the project team, performing quality assurance, distributing information, managing stakeholder expectations, and conducting procurements.a. monitoring and controlling b. executingc. planning d. initiating

Q: _____ processes include devising and maintaining a workable scheme to ensure that the project addresses the organization's needs.a. Initiating b. Planningc. Executing d. Monitoring and controlling

Q: _____ processes include defining and authorizing a project or project phase.a. Initiating b. Planningc. Executing d. Monitoring and controlling

Q: The two main items for monitoring and controlling in the Scrum framework are the daily Scrum and the sprint retrospectives.a. Trueb. False

Q: In the Scrum method, team members work as a self-directed group coached by the ScrumMaster. a. True b. False

Q: The pre-initiation phase of a project using the Scrum method does not involve project charters, stakeholder management strategy, and kick-off meetings. a. True b. False

Q: A sprint review is a meeting in which the team demonstrates to the product owner what it has completed during the sprint. a. True b. False

Q: The burndown chart is a Scrum created artifact that provides a list of features prioritized by business value. a. True b. False

Q: Project initiation involves taking the actions necessary to ensure that activities in the project plan are completed. a. True b. False

Q: The WBS provides a basis for creating the project schedule and performing earned value management for measuring and forecasting project performance. a. True b. False

Q: A milestone list is an output associated with the Project Scope Management knowledge area. a. True b. False

Q: Details of kick-off meetings and the stakeholder details are usually recorded in a Word document. a. True b. False

Q: The kick-off meeting is always held before the business case and project charter are completed. a. True b. False

Q: The output of the stakeholder management strategy results is a project charter. a. True b. False

Q: Identifying the project sponsor is a pre-initiation task. a. True b. False

Q: An organization's project management plan expresses the vision, mission, goals, objectives, and strategies of the organization. a. True b. False

Q: The DMAIC (Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, and Control) methodology of the Six Sigma projects, is used to improve an existing business process. a. True b. False

Q: The Rational Unified Process (RUP) framework is incompatible with the PMBOK process. a. True b. False

Q: Agile methods comprise of 45 subprocesses which are organized into eight process groups. a. True b. False

Q: Many project management activities occur as part of the planning process group. a. True b. False

Q: Key outcomes of the executing process group are formal acceptance of the work and creation of closing documents. a. True b. False

Q: Monitoring and controlling processes overlap all of the other project management process groups. a. True b. False

Q: The executing process group generally requires the most resources. a. True b. False

Q: Initiating and closing tasks are usually the longest and require the most amount of resources and time. a. True b. False

Q: The level of activity and length of each process group varies for every project. a. True b. False

Q: Initiating processes are not required to end a project. a. True b. False

Q: Initiating processes take place during each phase of a project. a. True b. False

Q: Decisions and actions taken in one knowledge area at a certain time rarely affect other knowledge areas. a. True b. False

Q: In the Scrum method, what role is played by the ScrumMaster?

Q: What is a work breakdown structure?

Q: Describe the process of initiating a project and the issues involved.

Q: What is a methodology and what are some methodologies other than the PMBOK Guide do organizations use as a basis for project management methodology?

Q: List and describe the five process management groups.

Q: If done well, the _________ can produce several releases of useful software.

Q: The most time and money should be spent on

Q: _____ are short descriptions written by customers of what they need a Scrum system to do for them.

Q: A(n) _____ is a Scrum artifact and consists of the highest-priority items from the product backlog to be completed in a sprint.

Q: In Scrum, a(n) _____ is a useful object created by people.

Q: A(n) _____ is a cross-functional team of five to nine people who organize themselves and the work to produce the desired results for each sprint.

Q: A(n) _____ is the person who ensures that the team is productive, facilitates the daily Scrum, enables close cooperation across all roles and functions, and removes barriers that prevent the team from being effective.

Q: A(n) _____ is a set period of time, normally two to four weeks, during which specific work must be completed and made ready for review when using Scrum methods.

Q: Discuss four key issues project managers must address when working on global projects.

Q: What is a systems development life cycle? What are some of the predictive models associated with the systems development life cycle?

Q: Why is top management commitment crucial for project managers?

Q: Describe each of the three major types of organizational structure.

Q: What are the four frames of organizations? Describe each frame.