Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Computer Science
Q:
Which passive intrusion-detection tool provides a listing of open files, including suspicious open files?a. klaxon b. lsof c. Dragon Squired. PreCis
Q:
Which of the following are examples of active intrusion-detection tools?a. klaxon b. lsof c. AppShieldd. RealSecure
Q:
Which of the following activities are usually looked for using passive intrusion-detection tools?a. Unusual or excessive e-mail traffic b. Changes to security c. Unplanned system shutdownsd. Port scanse. All of the above
Q:
Which of the following options is a common approach to intrusion detection?a. Archive b. System-based c. Host-basedd. Both a and be. Both b and c
Q:
Gathering performance statistics each time a new software application is installed, on slow, average, and peak periods during its use, and tracking how many users are on that software is an example of acquiring a _____.a. baseline b. framework c. foundationd. utilization level
Q:
SNMP enables network agents to gather information about network performance and send that information to a network management station. _________________________
Q:
Understanding the normal conditions for operating systems and a network is accomplished by establishing baselines. _________________________
Q:
If % Network utilization is frequently over 90 percent, that means the network is experiencing collisions and there may be bottlenecks due to the network design, possibly indicating the need to create more or different subnets. _________________________
Q:
In Network Monitor the capture store is the amount of RAM and virtual memory that is used to store captured data. _________________________
Q:
Network Monitor supports event management, which enables a server administrator to set up filters to capture a certain event or type of network activity. _________________________
Q:
Q:
Network Monitor is a utility which comes with Windows 2000 Server and Windows Server 2003. _________________________
Q:
SYSCON is a Server Console command that is carried forward from earlier versions of NetWare. _________________________
Q:
The whocommand provides information about who is logged on to Red Hat Linux 9.x. _________________________
Q:
File locks are open communication links between two processes on the server or between the server and a client. _________________________
Q:
In Red Hat Linux, the Emacs and vi editors can be used to configure the syslog.conf file.
Q:
In Mac OS X, the FTP Log keeps track of file uploads, downloads, and communications with FTP servers.
Q:
The Netware 6.x Console Log enables you to trace information, such as NLMs that have been loaded or unloaded, and to trace other activities that have been performed from the console.
Q:
In Red Hat Linux 9.x, by default, each log file has four rotation levels, to enable the retention of up to four weeks of information.
Q:
In Windows Server 2003 event viewer, an informational message such as a notice that a service has been started is prefaced by a black "!" (exclamation point) that appears on a yellow caution symbol.
Q:
The device log records information about system-related events such as hardware errors, driver problems, and hard drive errors.
Q:
An inspectoris an IDS that tracks a full range of data and events related to an operating system or network.
Q:
Network-based intrusion-detection software is categorized as host wrappers or host-based agents.
Q:
At minimum, active intrusion detection alerts a server or network administrator about an attack or intrusion, so the administrator can take action.
Q:
Active intrusion detection is effective as long as the server or network administrator regularly checks the logs and recorded information for possible intrusion attempts.
Q:
What five issues should be considered when choosing a NIC?
Q:
Other than encapsulation, what three other functions does a MAC controller perform?
Q:
What four components does a network connection require?
Q:
List the five methods of implementing hardware redundancy.
Q:
What five options are available for UPS configuration in Power Options on a Windows 2000 computer?
Q:
List the five TSAs that are loaded at the Netware Server Console prior to starting a backup.
Q:
What are the five different types of backups that the Windows Server 2003 backup tool enables you to perform?
Q:
What are the four advantages to performing backups from a tape or CD-R/CD-RW drive installed in a local computer rather than a remote computer?
Q:
What four advantages does hardware RAID offer over software RAID?
Q:
Match the following terms to the appropriate definition.a. Clustering f. Incremental backupb. Differential backup g. Stripingc. Disk duplexing h. SMPd. Disk mirroring i. Tower of Hanoie. Fault tolerance j. Full file-by-file backup1/ Prevents data loss by duplicating data from a main disk to a backup disk2/ Backs up all files and removes the archive attribute3/ Backs up all files but does not remove the archive attribute4/ Backup rotation scheme designed to extend the life of the backup media5/ A type of computer with two or more CPUs6/ Hardware and software used to provide assurance against equipment failure7/ Backs up the entire contents of one or more disk drives on the basis of directories, subdirectories, and files8/ Linking two computer systems to appear to function as though they are one9/ Breaks up data files across all volumes of a disk set10/ Places the backup disk on a different controller than is used by the main disk
Q:
The disadvantage of a(n) ____________________ UPS is that it may not switch to battery power in time to fully protect equipment during a sudden power failure.
Q:
NetWare has long had the ____________________ Systemto protect files and databases in case of an unexpected system crash or power failure.
Q:
In Netware, ____________________ is used to back up the NDS database and eDirectory.
Q:
In UNIX/Linux, the ____________________ utility backs up either all files, files that have changed by date, or files that have changed after the previous backup.
Q:
In UNIX/Linux, ____________________ is a binary backup that creates a mirror image of a disk onto the backup medium, such as a tape or CD-R/CD-RW.
Q:
A(n) ____________________ backup is a backup of all files that you have selected, usually an entire partition or volume.
Q:
The advantage of ____________________ backup is that it is simple to perform and includes everything on the disk.
Q:
____________________ RAID implements fault tolerance through the computer's operating system.
Q:
NetWare 6.5 offers _____________________, which is a browser tool for managing objects in NetWare.
Q:
In Red Hat Linux, the disk ____________________ utility enables you to manually configure the disk configuration options, including RAID.
Q:
Does Mac OS X support the use of dump and tar, in a way that is identical to Red Hat Linux 9.x and many other UNIX systems?
Q:
Was the dumpbackup utility designed for archiving tapes, since it includes file information as well as the archived files?
Q:
Does the daily backup option back up only files that have been changed or updated on the day the backup is performed?
Q:
Is a differential backup one in which the entire system, including all system files, programs, and data files are backed up?
Q:
Is one of the disadvantages of binary backups the fact that in many versions you cannot restore individual files or directories, and when you perform a restore, the target disk drive must be the same size or larger than the disk drive from which the backup was made?
Q:
Does Apple recommend that you place the boot files on the RAID disks when configuring Mac OS X for fault tolerance?
Q:
Can the NSSMU be used for configuring RAID during the installation of the Netware 6.5 operating system, as well as after it is installed?
Q:
In NetWare 6.x, do you use NDS tools from ConsoleOne to manage RAID?
Q:
Can RAID be configured when you install Red Hat Linux 9.x using the GUI installation mode?
Q:
Does a dynamic disk use traditional disk management techniques?
Q:
What is displayed in the figure above?a. Shared disk clustering model b. Shared server clustering model c. Shared network clustering modeld. Shared nothing clustering model
Q:
Which Netware TSA is used for Netware 6.x?a. TSA600 b. TSANDS c. GWTSAd. W95TSA
Q:
Which of the following types of backups can be performed by Windows XP?a. Normal b. Essential c. Distributedd. File System
Q:
Which of the following is not an advantage of hardware RAID?
a. Faster read and write response
b. More expensive to implement
c. The ability to hot swap a failed disk with one that works
d. More setup options to retrieve damaged data and to combine different RAID levels
Q:
Which levels of RAID are supported by Mac OS X?a. 0 b. 1 c. 5d. Both a and be. Both b and c
Q:
Which level of RAID is supported by Red Hat Linux?a. 0 b. 1 c. 5d. Both a and be. a, b, and c
Q:
When using RAID level 1, how much of the disk space is used for redundancy?a. 25% b. 33% c. 50%d. 66%
Q:
In Windows 2000, how many hard disks can RAID level 5 use?a. 2 to 32 b. 3 to 32 c. 3 to 64d. 5 to 32
Q:
In Windows 2000, how many hard disks can RAID level 1 use?a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 to 5d. 3 to 16
Q:
Which of the following file systems can dynamic disks be formatted for?a. FAT b. FAT32 c. NTFSd. All of the above
Q:
In Windows Server 2003, what is the maximum number of disks that can be incorporated into one spanned volume?a. 8 b. 16 c. 32d. 64
Q:
Which levels of RAID are recommended for use in Windows 2000 Server?a. 0 b. 1 c. 5d. Both b and ce. a, b, and c
Q:
Which level of RAID spreads both error correction and checksum data over all of the disks, so there is no single point of failure?a. 2 b. 3 c. 4d. 5
Q:
Which level of RAID can perform checksum verification?a. 3 b. 4 c. 5d. Both a and be. Both b and c
Q:
Which level of RAID uses disk striping and stores error-correcting information, but the information is only written to one disk in the array?a. 0 b. 1 c. 2d. 3
Q:
Which level of RAID uses an array of disks where the data are striped across all disks in the array but does not store a checksum?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
Q:
In which level of RAID is disk mirroring and disk duplexing employed?a. 0 b. 1 c. 3d. 5
Q:
In which level of RAID is there striping with no other redundancy features?a. 0 b. 1 c. 2d. 5
Q:
The figure above is an example of what type of fault tolerance?a. Disk mirroring b. Disk duplexing c. Disk stripingd. Disk partitioning
Q:
The figure above is an example of what type of fault tolerance?a. Disk mirroring b. Disk duplexing c. Disk stripingd. Disk partitioning
Q:
A _____ is a duplicate of some or all of a main databases data.a. data mine b. data cluster c. data warehoused. data farm
Q:
Which clustering model is one in which all servers equally share resources that include disk, CD-ROM, and tape storage?a. Shared disk b. Shared server c. Shared networkd. Shared none
Q:
What is the maximum number of processors supported by Windows Server 2003 Datacenter Edition?a. 8 b. 16 c. 32d. 64
Q:
What is the maximum number of processors supported by Windows XP Professional?a. 1 b. 2 c. 4d. 8
Q:
Which of the following types of servers should have redundant power supplies installed?a. SMTP mail b. Global catalog c. Webd. Databasee. All of the above