Q&A Hero

Q: At which layer of the OSI model does the MAC controller work?a. Physical b. Data Link c. Networkd. Transport

Q: Which of the following NIC components encapsulate source and destination address information? a. Protocol control firmware b. A MAC controller c. An appropriate connector for the network medium d. Both a and b e. Both b and c

Q: Which NIC component works with protocol control firmware installed in the NIC to construct packets and frames for transmission? a. An appropriate connector for the network medium b. A transceiver c. A MAC controller d. Protocol control firmware

Q: Which of the following connectors are available on NICs?a. Wireless b. Coax c. Twisted-paird. Fiber-optice. All of the above

Q: Which UPS_AIO configuration option is the interval between multiple warning messages sent to all users?a. msgdelay=seconds b. msginterval=seconds c. msginterval=millisecondsd. msgdelay=milliseconds

Q: Which UPS_AIO configuration option displays a brief description of the options used with the UPS_AIO NLM?a. path b. options c. descriptiond. ?

Q: In Red Hat Linux 9.x, what should be used to communicate with a UPS? a. /etc/sysconfig/ups file b. /sbin/powerd utility c. UPS manufacturer's configuration software d. UPS Manager utility

Q: What type of connection does a UPS use to communicate with a computer?a. Serial b. Parallel c. Networkd. Electrical

Q: Which of the following devices should not be plugged into a UPS?a. Computer b. Monitor c. Routerd. Laser printer

Q: Which of the following is a type of UPS?a. Online b. Offline c. Inlined. Both a and be. a, b, and c

Q: In Windows Server 2003, striped dynamic disks are called a striped volume. _________________________

Q: In Windows Server 2003, all three RAID levels support FAT and NTFS formatted disks. _________________________

Q: A significant disadvantage to using level 2 striping is that if one disk fails, you can expect a large data loss on all volumes. _________________________

Q: In Windows Server 2003, DFS can be used to place copies of the same folders on two or more computers in different locations. _________________________

Q: In the shared disk model, if one computer fails, the resources that it owns can be taken over by a different computer in the cluster that is still operational. _________________________

Q: Clustered computers are frequently used to provide uninterrupted service when one computer fails, and to provide a means to expand processing power, storage, and RAM when an existing system is overloaded. _________________________

Q: Transmission control firmware is software stored on a chip in the NIC that enables packets and frames to be correctly formatted for a specific protocol, for example, TCP/IP. _________________________

Q: The NIC is a device, in the form of a card, that enables a computer or network equipment to attach to the network. _________________________

Q: In the command "ups_aio msgdelay=300 downtime=600" a power outage warning is sent to all users within 10 minutes of a power outage. _________________________

Q: An online UPS connects city power directly to the electrical equipment until it senses a sudden reduction in power, at which time it switches over to batteries. _________________________

Q: Windows 2000 Server and Windows Server 2003 support only RAID levels 0, 1, and 5 for disk fault tolerance.

Q: RAID is a set of standards for lengthening disk life and preventing data loss.

Q: With disk striping, there are two separate drives for each disk volume of data.

Q: DFS is configured using the Distributed File System tool in the Administrative Tools menu in Windows 2000 Server.

Q: Windows 2000 Server, Windows Server 2003, Red Hat Linux 9.x, and NetWare 6.x all have versions or add-on software to enable clustering.

Q: Windows 2000, Windows XP Professional, Windows Server 2003, Red Hat Linux 9.x, Mac OS X, and NetWare 6.x all support multiprocessor systems.

Q: In Netware, the AIOCOMX NLM is the software used to configure the communications parameters for a UPS.

Q: Red Hat Linux 9.x supports the implementation of a UPS through the use of the /sbin/powerd utility.

Q: An online UPS normally regulates power to provide insurance for brownouts as well as outages.

Q: There are two types of UPS systems that are commonly marketed: onsite and offsite.

Q: When using only SMTP, no line can be longer than 1000 characters.

Q: Authenticating e-mail is one of the most effective ways to ensure the privacy of messages while they are in transit and after they arrive at an SMTP server.

Q: One way to help control UCE is for an organization to ensure that its mail servers are not configured as open SMTP relay servers.

Q: A local delivery agent is used to transmit an e-mail message.

Q: A common way to attack SMTP is an indirect attack through a DNS server.

Q: When e-mail is accessed on an e-mail server using POP3, only the message headers are initially downloaded to the client.

Q: POP3 is popular among many ISPs because it is designed so that messages are downloaded to an inbox on the client's computer, rather than being stored on the e-mail server after they are accessed.

Q: MIME is designed for the exchange of electronic mail between networked systems, particularly via the Internet.

Q: List five pieces of information that an SMTP address header may contain.

Q: What four authentication methods can Apple Mail use for verifying access to an e-mail account?

Q: List five of the e-mail security features that are offered through Microsoft Outlook.

Q: List four of the e-mail communication security measures that are supported by Outlook Express.

Q: List four popular e-mail tools that are in use today.

Q: List five ways users can protect themselves from malicious e-mail attachments.

Q: If an organization decides to use an e-mail gateway with virus scanning software, what four features should they look for in the software?

Q: What are three e-mail security measures that organizations can take to protect its users and computers?

Q: What six pieces of information are contained in a PGP digital certificate?

Q: Match the following terms to the appropriate definition.a. GPG f. POPb. Host address (A) resource record g. PGPc. Host address (AAAA) resource record h. PKCSd. Open SMTP relay server i. S/MIMEe. PTR resource record j. SRV locator record1/ Consists of a computer or domain name mapped to a 128-bit address2/ Consists of an IP address correlated to a computer or domain name3/ Standards developed by RSA Laboratories and other security organizations for public-key security methods4/ A DNS server record that associates a particular TCP/IP service to a server5/ Consists of a computer or domain name correlated to a 32-bit address6/ E-mail security method sometimes preferred by the open systems community7/ An e-mail server that resends e-mail to other servers without restrictions8/ An encryption and certificate-based security technique for e-mail messages9/ Gives an SMTP server the ability to receive and store e-mail10/ A security method that is designed to be compatible with PGP

Q: In 1998, 40-bit and 56-bit DES encryption techniques were added to ____________________.

Q: E-mail encryption reduces the chance that someone can forge an e-mail, because both the sender and the recipient must be using the same encryption ____________________ and the same encryption method.

Q: When an e-mail message is sent, a(n) ____________________ is used to place a new message into a particular user's mailbox.

Q: Sending a malicious SMTP message from a UNIX/Linux operating system is easier, because the attacker simply uses e-mail ____________________ options already built into UNIX/Linux.

Q: When a computer sends e-mail, the message goes to a(n) ____________________ server that looks up the SMTP server on its network and enables the message to be directed to that server.

Q: When using IMAP, the ____________________ command chooses a folder from which to determine the available messages.

Q: Using POP3 can be a disadvantage for ____________________, because messages are not previewed before they are downloaded.

Q: An SMTP address header ____________________ contains the source and destination e-mail addresses.

Q: POP and IMAP are designed to enable ____________________ and retrieval of e-mail messages.

Q: SMTP does not require use of a(n) ____________________ and password for the remote system.

Q: Does all software that sends e-mail through the Internet use SMTP?

Q: Does POP work through TCP port 109 for POP2 to enable an SMTP server to receive, store, and allow clients to retrieve their messages?

Q: In an SMTP message, are the address header and the message text both encoded in 15-bit ASCII format?

Q: Is IDEA well respected as a very secure patented block cipher encryption method?

Q: Does PGP security rely strictly on the use of X.509 digital certificates?

Q: Does SMTP support the transmission of ASCII text as well as binary file?

Q: Is unsolicited commercial e-mail very expensive for organizations?

Q: Do direct attacks on SMTP typically come from client e-mail software such as Outlook, Evolution, or Apple Mail?

Q: Does a DNS server convert a computer or domain name to an IP address, or an IP address to a computer or domain name, in a process called resolution?

Q: Is the goal of SMTP to provide reliable and guaranteed message transport?

Q: What is displayed in the figure above?a. Evolution Mail Summary view b. Apple Mail c. Outlook Expressd. Eudora

Q: What is displayed in the figure above?a. Outlook Express b. Apple Mail c. Evolution Mail configuration optionsd. Evolution Mail Summary view

Q: In the figure above, where is an attacker most likely to attempt to intercept e-mail transmissions?a. Between A and B b. Between B and C c. Between C and Dd. At D

Q: Which of the following encryption methods are supported by GPG?a. Twofish b. Blowfish c. IDEAd. Both a and be. Both b and c

Q: In Microsoft Outlook, into which file types can you import messages?a. Text file b. Microsoft Access file c. Microsoft Word filed. Both a and be. Both b and c

Q: Which of the following e-mail security features offered by Microsoft Outlook are proprietary to Microsoft exchange? a. V1 Exchange Server Security certificates b. X2 Exchange Server Security certificates c. Digital signatures encrypted using the Security Hash Algorithm 1 d. 168-bit Exchange Server mail encryption services

Q: What is the name of the e-mail tools used in Mac OS X?a. Ximian b. Pine c. MailXd. Mail

Q: In PGP, what CAST variable key length is available?a. 32 bits b. 56 bits c. 128 bitsd. Both a and be. Both b and c

Q: In 2002, which type of security was added to S/MIME?a. 40-bit DES b. 56-bit DES c. 128-bit key triple DESd. 168-bit key triple DES

Q: Which of the following is an example of a Commercial CA?a. GCFNb. GTE CyberTrust c. Thawted. All of the above

Q: What is the maximum length of a message line when using SMTP only?a. 100 characters b. 256 characters c. 500 charactersd. 1000 characters

Q: What type of encoding is used with MIME?a. Base16 b. Base32 c. Base64d. Base128