Q&A Hero

Q: What federal program supported innovative research on police work and advanced training for police officers during the 1970s? a. Criminal Justice Institute b. National Institute of Justice c. Law Enforcement Assistance Administration (LEAA) d. Federal Crime Bill

Q: Before the jurors begin discussing what they have heard and seen, the judge gives the jury a .

Q: Once it has reached a decision, the jury issues a .

Q: What was one of August Vollmer's greatest contributions to police professionalism? a. Instituted university training for young officers b. Established the first formal police academy in the United States c. Was the first president of the International Association of Chiefs of Police (IACP) d. Created the first special weapons and tactics (SWAT) team

Q: is indirect evidence that is offered to establish, by inference, the likelihood of a fact that is in question.

Q: In early US policing, which area of the country encouraged individual initiative and offered rewards for the capture of felons and law breakers? a. The rural south b. Western territories c. The east d. Most areas employed this practice

Q: A(n) is a witness who can truthfully and accurately testify on a fact in question without having specialized knowledge or training.

Q: The first technological breakthrough in policing came in the area of: a. transportation. b. communication. c. regulation. d. administration.

Q: Which US city created the first formal US police department? a. Boston b. New York City c. Philadelphia d. Chicago

Q: is anything that is used to prove the existence or nonexistence of a fact.

Q: Henry Fielding operated his own monied police, referred to as ___________, which attempted to clean up earlier policing efforts by deciding which cases to investigate and which streets to protect. a. Justices of the peace b. Friends of Fielding c. Bow Street Runners d. Metropolitan Police

Q: English police officers are known as bobbies because: a. their heads often bobbed up and down as they rode the streets of London on horses. b. Sir Robert (Bobbie) Peel was responsible for their creation. c. an inordinately large number of the original London metropolitan police force was named Bobbie. d. they are trained to bob their head whenever a member of the royal family came into view.

Q: is verbal evidence given by witnesses under oath.

Q: What were the organized private police that patrolled eighteenth-century England called? a. Constables b. Shire reeves c. Bobbies d. Thief takers

Q: The is a kind of "road map" that describes the destination each attorney is trying to reach.

Q: Challenges to remove potential jurors from the pool that are limited in number are .

Q: The is the group of citizens from which the jury is selected.

Q: What was created in 1326 to assist the shire reeve in controlling the county? a. Sheriff b.Constable c. Bobbie d.Justice of the peace

Q: The Amendment states that anyone accused of a crime shall be judged by an impartial jury.

Q: In medieval England, the senior law enforcement figure in a county was _________, who is today referred to as a sheriff. a. Shire reeve b. Constable c. Peace maker d. Watch commander

Q: The Amendment states that no person "shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself."

Q: In the pledge system, people were grouped into families of 10, called _________, and were entrusted with policing their own minor problems. a. Shire reeve b. Tithings c. Peace makers d. Watch systems

Q: In a typical case, the prosecutor only has one goal after charging the defendant: .

Q: Which of the following officers was part of the watch system of policing that thrived in thirteenth-century England? a. Watchmen b.Shire reeve c. Justice of the peace d. All of these

Q: The US Secret Service was initially tasked with investigating the counterfeiting of US currency and it continues to do so today. a. True b. False

Q: During the 1960's civil rights movement police felt that they had been handcuffed by the courts. a. True b. False

Q: The is the law limiting the amount of time prosecutors have to bring criminal charges against a suspect after the crime has occurred.

Q: A is a form that must be completed by a defendant who pleads guilty in most jurisdictions. The defendant in this form states that she or he has agreed to the plea voluntarily and with full comprehension of the consequences.

Q: Until 1881, the New York police were responsible for street sweeping. a. True b. False

Q: is the process by which the accused and the prosecutor work out a mutually satisfactory conclusion to the case, subject to court approval.

Q: is Latin for "I will not contest it."

Q: Henry Fielding established the first organized police department in London. a. True b. False

Q: The shire reeve is a forerunner of today's justices of the peace. a. True b. False

Q: The most prominent technology used in law enforcement is deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) profiling. a. True b. False

Q: A suspect is formally charged with the criminal offense in the .

Q: is the process through which prosecutors effect an overall reduction in the number of persons prosecuted.

Q: License plate recognition (LPR) technology is used by virtually all police precincts in the United States. a. True b. False

Q: The Supreme Court held that the must occur "promptly," typically within 48 hours of booking.

Q: The group of citizens who are called to decide whether probable cause exists to believe that a suspect committed the crime with which she or he has been charged is called a(n) .

Q: It is currently recognized that a majority of predatory crimes are concentrated in geographic "hot spots." a. True b. False

Q: Compared to traditional police, private police focus more on loss and less on crime. a. True b. False

Q: The belief that government police are not capable of providing the level of service and presence that the public desires is one reason for the popularity of private police. a. True b. False

Q: The formal investigation by each side prior to trial is the process of .

Q: Private police are subject to the same legal constraints as public police. a. True b. False

Q: If unable to post bail with cash or property, a defendant may arrange for a to post a bail bond on the defendant's behalf.

Q: The retention of an accused person in custody before trial is called __________________.

Q: Federal police agencies are the only agencies that have not privatized their police services to cut expenses. a. True b. False

Q: is the dollar amount or conditions set by the court to ensure that an individual accused of a crime will appear for further criminal proceedings.

Q: A number of county law enforcement agencies are now engaging in anti-terror and homeland security activities. a. True b. False

Q: During the appeals process, the burden of proof rests with the prosecution. a. True b. False

Q: The Texas Rangers were one of the first state police agencies. a. True b. False

Q: About 23 state police agencies have the same general police powers as municipal police and are territorially limited in their exercise of law enforcement regulations only by the state's boundaries. a. True b. False

Q: The bar against double jeopardy does not preclude a victim from bringing a civil suit against the same person to recover damages. a. True b. False

Q: In an Allen Charge, the judge declares the jury to be hung. a. True b. False

Q: Discuss the historical development of criminal law.

Q: Describe the importance of procedural due process. List the procedural due process rights that are guaranteed to an individual.

Q: Presenting an alibi is an example of an affirmative defense. a. True b. False

Q: Elaborate the meaning of due process through the use of an example.

Q: Discuss two of the following Amendments (Fourth, Fifth, Sixth, or Eighth Amendments) and how each serves to limit and control the manner in which the federal government operates the justice system.

Q: A blood-stained piece of clothing presented in court as an exhibit is an example of real evidence. a. True b. False

Q: Circumstantial evidence is not admissible in court. a. True b. False

Q: Discuss the amendment that prohibits cruel and unusual punishment, as well as the premise and outcome of the 2008 case of Baze and Bowling v. Rees

Q: Describe three tests of the insanity defense and how each is applied.

Q: Each attorney may exercise a limited number of peremptory challenges. a. True b. False

Q: Explain three legal excuses and three justifications for crime and provide an example of each.

Q: If the defendant waives her or his right to trial by jury, a bench trial takes place in which a judge decides questions of legality and fact, and no jury is involved. a. True b. False

Q: Delineate the legal elements required to constitute a crime. Describe and give an example of each of the classifications of crime.

Q: Protection against double jeopardy is contained within the Fifth Amendment. a. True b. False

Q: Define the concept of substantive criminal law and detail its goals.

Q: Only a criminal defendant has the right to "take the Fifth" during a criminal trial. a. True b. False

Q: Differentiate between criminal law and civil law.

Q: The Sixth Amendment states that no person "shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself." a. True b. False

Q: A judge has the ability to change the location of the trial to increase the likelihood of an unbiased jury. This is called ____________.

Q: The branch of law that deals with the government and its relationships with individuals or other governments is called _______________ law.

Q: ________________law is used to resolve control and shape personal interactions such as wills, trusts, and property ownership.

Q: Witnesses are not protected by the Fifth Amendment. a. True b. False

Q: Using local rules of conduct and customs to decide a case is referred to as ________________.

Q: The plea bargain allows the defendant a measure of control over his or her fate. a. True b. False

Q: A child under the age of 7 years who commits a crime will not be held criminally responsible for their crimes. This is an example of __________________ rules.

Q: Defendants have the right to effective representation during plea negotiations. a. True b. False