Q&A Hero

Q: Electronic surveillance of a suspect cannot last more than without a judicial extension. a. 10 days b. 30 days c. 60 days d. 90 days

Q: Coolidge v. New Hampshireestablished the doctrine for plain view searches. Which of the following is not one of the required criteria? a. The item is positioned so as to be detected easily by the officer. b. The officer immediately recognizes the illegal nature of the item. c. The officer is legally in a position to notice the item in question. d. The suspect does not object to the officer finding the item.

Q: According to the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), there are about 500 justified fatal police shootings each year. This number is an increase from 5 years ago. a. True b. False

Q: Suppose a traffic officer pulls over a person for speeding, looks in the driver's window, and clearly sees what appears to be a bag of heroin resting on the passenger seat. Under the , law enforcement officers may seize the drugs without a warrant. a. exclusionary rule b. fruit of the poisoned tree c. inevitable evidence exception d. plain view doctrine

Q: The recognized standard for a "reasonable expectation of privacy" was established by which of the following court cases? a. Katzv.UnitedStates b. Mappv.Ohio c. Terryv.Ohio d. UnitedStatesv.Cortez

Q: Which of the following cases sets the standard for consent searches? a. Carrollv.UnitedStates b. Chimelv.California c. Mappv.Ohio d. Schnecklothv.Bustamonte

Q: A law enforcement officer on border patrol does not need a warrant to search vehicles crossing the border. This exception to the search warrant is referred to as: a. an automobile search. b. a border search. c. a consent search. d. a hot pursuit search.

Q: The reasoning behind the warrantless search of automobiles is that: a. because they traverse public roadways, there is no expectation to privacy in one's vehicle. b. vehicles contain an area too small to require a search warrant. c. vehicles are moveable and could drive away before the officer could obtain a warrant. d. vehicles can have more than one driver, therefore they are not considered under the Fourth Amendment right to be free from unreasonable searches.

Q: In , the Court ruled that police may search any area within the suspect's "immediate control" to confiscate any weapons or evidence that the suspect could destroy. a. UnitedStatesv.Robinson b. Chimelv.California c. Mappv.Ohio d. Californiav.Greenwood

Q: What kind of search takes place when an individual gives law enforcement permission to search their persons, homes, or belongings?a. an automobile searchb. a consent searchc. a search incident to arrestd. a search within plain view

Q: The Court has established that the does not require police to obtain a warrant to search automobiles or other movable vehicles when they have probable cause to believe that a vehicle contains contraband or evidence of criminal activity. a. Second Amendment b. Fourth Amendment c. Fifth Amendment d. Sixth Amendment

Q: A(n) is the forcible taking of a person or property in response to a violation of the law. a. arrest b. frisk c. search d. seizure

Q: If a law enforcement officer has a search warrant authorizing him to search for a desktop computer located in the office of the suspect's house, where can he look during the search procedure for this evidence? a. the living room b. any room in the house c. in the office d. in a medicine cabinet

Q: In order to obtain a search warrant, a police officer must generally provide specific information on the premises to be searched, the illegal activity taking place, the items to be seized, and:a. preponderance of the evidence.b. probable cause.c. proof beyond a reasonable doubt.d. reasonable suspicion.

Q: A(n) is a written order, based on probable cause and issued by a judge or magistrate, commanding that police officers or criminal investigators search a specific person, place, or property to obtain evidence. a. affidavit b. arrest warrant c. search d. search warrant

Q: A(n) is the process by which police examine a person or property to find evidence that will be used to prove guilt in a criminal trial. a. arrest b. frisk c. search d. stop

Q: In ______________ (2012), the U.S. Supreme Court found that the government had "physically occupied" private property via a GPS device over a prolonged period of time. a. UnitedStatesv.Jones b. Floridav.Jardines c. Katzv.UnitedStates d. Californiav.Greenwood

Q: The "good faith" exception to the exclusionary rule was established by case law in: a. UnitedStatesv.Leon b. Brewerv.Williams c. Nixv.Williams d. Carrollv.UnitedStates

Q: Any physical or verbal evidence police are able to acquire by using illegally obtained evidence is known as: a. fruit of the poisoned tree. b. the exclusionary rule. c. the rotten apple doctrine. d. exculpatory evidence.

Q: The prohibits the use of illegally seized evidence. a. exclusionary rule b. poisoned tree rule c. probable cause rule d. reasonable rule

Q: Generally speaking, which of the four sources of probable cause mentioned in the text is not strong enough to stand alone? a. information b. evidence c. association d. personal observation

Q: The Fourth Amendment protects against: a. double jeopardy. b. unreasonable search and seizure. c. cruel and unusual punishment. d. self-incrimination.

Q: Reasonable grounds to believe the existence of facts warranting certain actions, such as the search or arrest of a person, is: a. reasonable suspicion. b. probable cause. c. search cause. d. clear and convincing evidence.

Q: When police are conducting a search or seizure, they must be: a. analytical. b. fair. c. quiet. d. reasonable.

Q: The Fourth Amendment contains two critical legal concepts: a prohibition against unreasonable searches and seizures and: a. a trial by a jury of peers. b. prohibition against cruel and unusual punishment. c. requirement of probable cause to make an arrest. d. requirement of reasonable suspicion to make an arrest.

Q: Police officers often have high levels of , otherwise known as the stress hormone. a. dopamine b. cortisol c. proposol d. adrenaline

Q: Which one is NOT an internal pressure of police officers that causes stress? a. the need to comply with the law b. limited opportunities for career and advancement c. excessive paperwork d. low wages and benefits

Q: Which of the following is defined as "a metaphorical term used to refer to the value placed on secrecy and the general mistrust of the outside world shared by many police officers"? a. blue curtain b. police sarcasm c. police cynicism d. police subculture

Q: A broad term used to describe the basic assumptions and values that permeate law enforcement agencies and are taught to new members of a law enforcement agency as the proper way to think, perceive, and act is called: a. the blue curtain. b. police cynicism. c. the police subculture. d. socialization.

Q: can be defined as an approach that promotes community-police relations. a. Directed patrol b. Random patrol c. Proactive patrol d. Community policing

Q: A policing philosophy that moves beyond responding to incidents and attempts to solve the root causes of criminal behavior is: a. problem-oriented policing. b. community policing. c. incident-driving policing. d. proactive policing.

Q: The "broken windows theory" is based on the theory that by cracking down on crimes, police can significantly reduce all crime in an area. a. felony b. property c. quality-of-life d. violent

Q: What type of technology is utilized by police departments to locate and identify hot spots? a. arrest rates b. crime mapping c. preventive patrol d. rapid response

Q: An area that is concentrated with high criminal activity to which there is a directed police response is a: a. depressed spot. b. heavy spot. c. hot spot. d. crime spot.

Q: The Kansas City Experiment showed that decreasing preventive patrol: a. had little or no impact on crime. b. decreased crime. c. increased crime. d. increased the number of reported offenses.

Q: In which type of patrol do officers make the rounds of a specific area with the purpose of carrying out the various patrol functions? a. directed b. incident-driven c. general d. scattered indirect

Q: Time elapsed between the instant a call for service is received and the instant a police officer arrives on the scene, otherwise referred to as , has become a benchmark for police efficiency. a. differential response b. directed patrol c. incident-driven policing d. response time

Q: A reactive approach to policing that emphasizes a speedy response to calls for service is: a. community policing. b. directed policing. c. problem-oriented policing. d. incident-driven policing.

Q: Who operated the National Combined DNA Index System? a. ATF b. DEA c. FBI d. ICE

Q: A database containing the DNA of more than 4.5 million people is: a. CODIS. b. AFIS. c. IBIS. d. NCVS.

Q: The establishment of a connection between a suspect and a crime, often through the use of DNA evidence, in the absence of an ongoing investigation is a: a. proactive solve. b. clearance rate. c. random hit. d. cold hit.

Q: DNA fingerprinting emerged in the: a. 1970s.b. 1980s. c. 1990s. d. 2000s.

Q: Ballistics is the study of: a. DNA. b. fingerprinting. c. firearms. d. response time.

Q: For more than a century, the most important piece of trace evidence has been: a. DNA. b. the human fingerprint. c. human hair. d. blood evidence.

Q: Which is NOT an example of trace evidence? a. ballistics b. blood c. fingerprints d. hair

Q: Which crime is investigated most thoroughly and thus results in the highest clearance rates? a. burglary b. computer theft c. murder d. stolen vehicle

Q: tThe term "clearance rate" refers to: a. the percentage of reported crimes. b. the percentage of crimes that result in arrest and prosecution. c. the percentage of crimes that result in a criminal conviction. d. the percentage of stolen goods that are returned to victims of crime.

Q: Today, most undercover officers are used to infiltrate large-scale operations. a. burglary b. car theft c. narcotics d. serial killer

Q: Because of , police officers are limited in what they can do to convince the target of an undercover operation to participate in an illegal activity. a. duress b. entrapment c. necessity d. self-defense

Q: Aggressive investigation strategies include: a. crackdowns. b. undercover operations. c. roadblocks. d. increased patrol of hot spots.

Q: The most common way for someone to become a detective is to: a. attend graduate school in criminal justice. b. attend specialized training in the field. c. earn an undergraduate college degree. d. be promoted from patrol officer.

Q: After a crime has been committed and the patrol officer has gathered preliminary information from a crime scene, the responsibility of identifying the offender is delegated to the: a. detective. b. internal affairs unit. c. patrol officer. d. police chief.

Q: Studies have suggested that only calls to the police involve the report of criminal activity. a. one in two b. one in three c. one in four d. one in five

Q: Paperwork takes up to of a patrol officer's time. a. 20%b. 40%c. 60%d. 80%

Q: The majority of a patrol officer's time is spent on: a. preventive patrol. b. calls for service. c. administrative duties. d. officer-initiated activities.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a purpose of police patrol listed in the text? a. deterrence of crime b. maintenance of public order c. improvement of public attitudes toward the police d. provision of services that are not crime related

Q: What is the smallest stretch of area that a police officer or group of police officers regularly patrol? a. beat b. district c. station d. zone

Q: What is the ultimate goal of a bureaucratic organization, such as a police department? a. administration development b. efficiency c. low employee turnover d. work satisfaction for the employee

Q: A hierarchically structured administrative organization that carries out specific functions is a: a. bureaucracy. b. delegation. c. chain of command. d. strategy.

Q: Explain what an ethical dilemma is and name four categories of ethical dilemmas typically faced by police officers.

Q: Identify and discuss the three traditional forms of police corruption.

Q: Discuss the use of force and when police are justified in using deadly force.

Q: Explain five stress factors that police officers experience.

Q: What are the rituals that are part of a police officer's acceptance, and even embrace, of the police subculture?

Q: Discuss police subculture and how police officers become socialized.

Q: Explain community policing and its contribution to the concept of problem-oriented policing.

Q: Discuss the Kansas City Preventive Patrol Experiment.

Q: How do differential response strategies enable police departments to respond more efficiently to 911 calls?

Q: List four new developments in DNA technology.

Q: Describe how forensic experts use DNA fingerprinting to solve crimes.

Q: What type of information are forensic scientists looking for?

Q: Discuss two aggressive investigation strategies.

Q: Why did reformers implement a militaristic organization of police departments?

Q: List and discuss the three primary purposes/goals of police patrol.

Q: The four categories of ethical dilemmas involve discretion, duty, honesty, and .

Q: The obligation to act in a certain manner is .

Q: corruption is knowing misconduct by a police officer with the goal of attaining what the officer believes is a "just" result.

Q: Many communities rely on an external procedure for handling citizen complaints, which is known as ___________________________.

Q: The is a division within a police department that receives and investigates complaints of wrongdoing by police officers.

Q: is when an officer accepts money in exchange for allowing a certain criminal activity to continue.