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Q:
Many experts believe that the events from September 11, 2001, effectively ended the:
a. political era of policing.
b. community era of policing.
c. reform era of policing.
d. era of random policing.
Q:
Attempting to stop crimes before they are committed is a form of policing.
a. social
b. interactive
c. proactive
d. reactive
Q:
During the community era of policing, the strategic goal was to:
a. enforce the law.
b. control crime.
c. improve the quality of life.
d. satisfy the needs of citizens and political bosses.
Q:
The importance of intelligence-based policing was not evident before which major event?
a. World War I
b. World War II
c. the Vietnam War
d. 9/11 attacks
Q:
What type of policing relies on data concerning past crime patterns to predict future crime patterns?
a. community policing
b. intelligence-led policing
c. proactive policing
d. reactive policing
Q:
What was the major drawback of the professional model?
a. Community policing was redesigned based on the new model of policing.
b. Crime rates increased drastically.
c. Relations with the community suffered.
d. Salaries for the rank and file were reduced, which did not allow for hiring of the best people.
Q:
A style of policing that emphasizes centralized police organizations, increased use of technology, and a limitation of police discretion through regulations and guidelines was known as the:
a. patronage model.
b. professional model.
c. spoils system.
d. watchmen system.
Q:
The patronage system is associated with which era of policing?
a. the colonial era
b. the political era
c. the reform era
d. the community era
Q:
During the of policing, corruption was rampant.
a. community era
b. technological era
c. political era
d. reform era
Q:
Early police officers likely gained their positions as a result of:
a. earning a college education.
b. receiving training in the area of policing.
c. demonstrating their skills in investigation.
d. political connections.
Q:
The policing efforts in the first American cities were directed at:
a. crime control.
b. controlling certain groups of people (mostly slaves and Native Americans).
c. controlling politicians.
d. controlling vagrants.
Q:
In which city was the first organized police department formed?
a. Atlanta
b. Boston
c. New York City
d. Philadelphia
Q:
Early policing efforts were for the most part performed by:
a. educated employees.
b. paid persons.
c. professionals.
d. volunteers.
Q:
Most arrests are made for:
a. crimes of disorder.
b. crimes of violence.
c. sex crimes.
d. organized crimes.
Q:
The most controversial task of police is to:
a. provide services.
b. arrest criminals.
c. enforce the law.
d. prevent crime.
Q:
When police officers "handle the situation" they are performing which responsibility of policing?
a. enforcing laws
b. providing services
c. preventing crime
d. preserving the peace
Q:
The police responsibility of "preserving the peace" is strongly related to:
a. preventing crime.
b. providing public service.
c. enforcing the law.
d. fighting crime.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT one of the services provided by police?
a. directing traffic
b. performing emergency medical procedures
c. providing directions to tourists
d. arresting offenders
Q:
In the public mind, the primary goal of the police officer is to:
a. enforce laws.
b. provide services.
c. prevent crime.
d. preserve the peace.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic responsibilities of the police as pinpointed by Bittner?
a. to create laws
b. to enforce laws
c. to provide services
d. to prevent crime
Q:
In a civil case, the injured party is called the:
a. plaintiff.
b. defendant.
c. prosecutor.
d. state.
Q:
In a criminal case, the burden of proof is:
a. beyond a reasonable doubt
b. preponderance of the evidence
c. beyond a shadow of doubt
d. by clear and convincing evidence
Q:
What is the burden of proof necessary to win a civil trial?
a. clear and convincing evidence
b. probable cause
c. preponderance of evidence
d. proof beyond a reasonable doubt
Q:
The remedy for a violation of civil law is:
a. monetary damages awarded to the plaintiff.
b. probation up to 5 years.
c. a fine paid to the state or county.
d. incarceration up to 1 year.
Q:
Civil law is concerned with:
a. teaching appropriate behavior.
b. maintaining public safety.
c. offenses against society as a whole.
d. rights and duties between individuals.
Q:
Law may be broken down according to various classifications. Which of the following is not one of these classifications?
a. civil law and criminal law
b. felonies and misdemeanors
c. malainseand malaprohibita
d. tort crimes and civil crimes
Q:
The social function of the law includes the concepts of:
a. protecting individual rights and teaching societal boundaries.
b. protecting individual rights and punishing offenders.
c. expressing public morality and teaching societal boundaries.
d. expressing public morality and punishing offenders.
Q:
Court decisions that provide guidance in interpreting the law are called:
a. procedural guidelines.
b. benchmarks.
c. precedents.
d. baselines.
Q:
The federal Environmental Protection Agencies regulations are examples of:
a. constitutional law.
b. statutory law.
c. administrative law.
d. case law.
Q:
The rules, orders, and decisions of regulatory agencies make up:
a. administrative law.
b. case law.
c. constitutional law.
d. statutory law.
Q:
A federal judge overturns a Nebraska state law making it a crime for sex offenders to use social media. This is an example of a(n):
a. constitutional law.
b. statutory law.
c. administrative law.
d. case law.
Q:
The term "judgemade" law is synonymous with:
a. administrative law.
b. case law.
c. constitutional law.
d. statutory law.
Q:
Texas laws, such as making the theft of cattle a felony, are examples of:
a. constitutional law.
b. statutory law.
c. administrative law.
d. case law.
Q:
Laws enacted by legislative bodies at any level of government make up a source of law, which is generally referred to as:
a. administrative law.
b. case law.
c. constitutional law.
d. statutory law.
Q:
The Fourteenth Amendment is an example of a(n):
a. constitutional law.
b. statutory law.
c. administrative law.
d. case law.
Q:
The is the supreme law of the land, and as such is the basis of all law in the United States.
a. Declaration of Independence
b. U.S. Penal Code
c. U.S. Constitution
d. Case law of the U.S. Supreme Court
Q:
Compare substantive due process with procedural due process.
Q:
Explain the importance of the due process clause in the Constitution.
Q:
List the requirements of a duress defense.
Q:
Discuss the justification defenses of duress, self-defense, necessity, and entrapment. Describe a situation in which each defense may be used.
Q:
Consider the following example: Johnny mistakenly walks off with Jenny's suitcase because he thought it was his.
Which defense could Johnny use against theft charges and why would that be a valid defense?
Q:
Explain under which circumstances intoxication can be a valid defense. Give an example.
Q:
Discuss the most important excuse defenses.
Q:
Explain how the doctrine of strict liability applies to criminal law.
Q:
Explain the difference between first and second degree murder.
Q:
Explain the difference between crimes that are malainseand crimes that are malaprohibita.
Q:
Describe felonies and misdemeanors and discuss the differences between the two.
Q:
Discuss the differences between civil law and criminal law.
Q:
Explain the categories of "criminal harm."
Q:
Discuss the purposes of criminal law.
Q:
Identify and discuss the four written sources of American criminal law.
Q:
due process is the constitutional requirement that laws used in accusing and convicting persons of crimes must be fair.
Q:
The Amendment guarantees that no person can be required to be a victim against himself or herself.
Q:
The and Amendments require that no one can be deprived of life, liberty, or property without due process of law.
Q:
Deadly force can be used in self-defense if there is a that imminent death or bodily harm will otherwise result, if the attacker is using unlawful force.
Q:
The is the requirement that a person claiming self-defense prove that she or he took reasonable steps to avoid the conflict that resulted in the use of deadly force.
Q:
Ordinarily, ignorance of the law, or , is not a valid criminal defense.
Q:
is a defense for criminal liability that asserts a lack of criminal responsibility due to mental instability.
Q:
Crimes motivated by bias against an individual or a group based on race, ethnicity, religion, gender, sexual orientation, disability, or age are considered .
Q:
occurs when the intent to kill may be present but malice is lacking.
Q:
means that the guilty act and the guilty intent must occur together.
Q:
Felony-murder is a form of murder that applies when a person participates in any of a list of serious felonies that results in the unlawful killing of a human being.
Q:
Strict liability crimes hold the defendant to be guilty even if the to commit the offense is lacking.
Q:
is a negligent homicide, in which the offender had no intent to kill the victim.
Q:
Offenses punishable by 30 days to a year in jail are .
Q:
A failure to exercise the standard of care that a reasonable person would exercise in similar circumstances is
____________________.
Q:
In a civil court, the legal responsibility for one's own or another's actions is called .
Q:
Criminal law requires that the or "the body of the crime" be proved before a person
can be convicted of wrongdoing.
Q:
refers to acts that are considered crimes only because they have been codified as such through statute.
Q:
have a maximum penalty of death.
Q:
The burden of proof in the American criminal court system is .
Q:
__________ are private wrongs.
Q:
All law can be divided into two categories: civil law and .
Q:
consists of the rules, orders, and decisions of regulatory agencies.
Q:
Thanks to the of the Constitution, federal law will almost always prevail.
Q:
A is a procedure through which the citizens of a state, by collecting enough signatures, can force a public vote on a proposed change to a state law.
Q:
is the body of law enacted by legislative bodies.
Q:
Legally a victim has no role in the prosecution of an offender.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Due process is addressed in the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments to the Constitution.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Procedural criminal law defines the acts that the government will punish.
a. True
b. False