Q&A Hero

Q: UCR/NIBRS terminology may differ from ________ definitions of crime. a. statistical reporting b. the UCR Program's c. statutory d. the FBI's

Q: Death-row inmates are placed in minimum security institutions.

Q: In which of the following cases did the Court establish a two-pronged test for assessing constitutional violations by government agents? a. City of Canton, Ohio v. Harris b. Saucier v.Katz c. Malley v. Briggs d. Biscoe v. Arlington County

Q: The theft of farm animals would be classified as ________. a. larceny-theft b. burglary c. robbery d. motor vehicle theft

Q: What are your opinions concerning the probation and parole systems in place today? Do you believe the systems are working properly today or can we improve on them? Cite and analyze examples to support your beliefs.

Q: Barker and Carter describe acts of corruption that occur most often to further the organizational goals of law enforcement, as ________. a. meat eating b. abuse of authority c. occupational deviance d. grass eating

Q: Clearances are based primarily on ________. a. charges b. arrests c. convictions d. dispositions

Q: In 2003, the U.S. Department of Justice, in conjunction with other federal agencies, initiated funding for 89 reentry sites across the country under the Serious and Violent Offender Reentry Initiative (SVORI). Define and comment on the three phases of the SVORI initiative and the target populations they are geared towards.

Q: According to the Status of Women in Policing Survey, about what percentage of women fill all sworn law enforcement positions nationwide? a. 62 b. 50 c. 13 d. 25

Q: Approximately how many law enforcement agencies provide crime data to the FBI for the UCR? a. 50,000 b. 100,000 c. 30,000 d. 18,000

Q: Describe three significant court cases that have had an impact on the practice of probation and parole since the 1970s.

Q: Which of the following is true of better-educated police officers? a. Educated officers are less likely to have disciplinary problems. b. Educated officers are less likely to leave police work. c. Educated officers are less likely to question orders. d. Educated officers are less likely to request reassignment within the department.

Q: The Sourcebook of Criminal Justice Statistics is published by the ________. a. Office for Crime Data b. Bureau of Justice Statistics c. Department of Justice Research d. Bureau of Criminal Justice Surveys

Q: Define intermediate sanctions. Explain three distinct advantages that are found with intermediate sanctions.

Q: Which type of police corruption identified by the Knapp Commission involves the active seeking of illicit money-making opportunities by officers? a. grass eating b. profiling c. occupational deviance d. meat eating

Q: Approximately 50% of hate crimes are motivated by ________. a. religious bias b. national origin c. sexual orientation d. racial hatred

Q: In March, 2008, the U.S. Congress passed the Second Chance Act. The bill authorized the expenditure of approximately $400 million dollars in federal funds to reduce recidivism. List and define four of the programs and discuss how they can or do impact recidivism.

Q: The official program of a state or legislative jurisdiction that sets standards for the training of law enforcement officers is known as the ________. a. Federal Law Enforcement Training Center (FLETC) b. American Society for Law Enforcement Training (ASLET) c. Commission on Accreditation for Law Enforcement Agencies (CALEA) d. Peace Officer Standards and Training (POST) program

Q: What was the most common form of arson reported in 2012? a. arson of vehicles b. arson of personal items c. arson of computers d. arson of structures

Q: Define the job duties of probation and parole officers. Explain the two of the major challenges they face in their daily work.

Q: Which of the following is a civil suit brought against federal government officials for denying the constitutional rights to life, liberty, or property without due process of law? a. 1983 lawsuit b. Federal Rehabilitation Act c. Federal Tort Claims Act d. Bivens action

Q: What is the most common form of larceny? a. stealing motor vehicle parts b. pocket picking c. stealing from coin-operated machines d. purse snatching

Q: Define and explain the advantages and disadvantages of probation and parole.

Q: When a police officer arrests someone based on an improperly issued warrant, ________. a. the officer is liable for the charge of false arrest b. the officer is liable for violations of constitutional rights c. the warrant protects the officer from liability d. the officer is liable for monetary damages

Q: Which of the following is NOT considered larceny? a. stealing a car b. stealing a bicycle c. stealing from stores d. stealing farm animals

Q: Which of the following is NOT a general condition for probations? a. maintain employment b. possess no firearms c. surrender the driver's license d. remain within the jurisdiction of the court

Q: A recent study by the FBI found that most slain officers ________. a. were good-natured and well liked by the department b. were not friendly to everyone c. were not laid back or easy going d. were more likely to use physical force than most officers

Q: A murderer who kills at two or more locations with almost no time break between murders is a ________. a. mass murderer b. spree killer c. multiplex murderer d. serial killer

Q: Which of the following is an early release option under which an inmate who is deemed "low risk," due to physical or mental health conditions, is released from prison earlier than he or she might have been under normal circumstances? a. discretionary release b. prisoner reentry c. medical parole d. mandatory parole

Q: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of educated police officers? a. wiser use of discretion b. reduced sensitivity to racial issues c. fewer citizen complaints d. better written reports

Q: What piece of federal gun-control legislation established a national instant criminal background check system? a. Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act b. Crime Awareness and Campus Security Act c. Brady Handgun Violence Prevention Act d. Unborn Victims of Violence Act

Q: In Georgia, the typical caseload of an intensive supervision probation officer is ________. a. 40 probationers b. 120 probationers c. 500 probationers d. 240 probationers

Q: What is the meaning of the term grass eater as a form of police corruption? a. officers who accept small bribes and minor services from citizens b. officers who solicit bribes through threat or intimidation c. officers who seek illicit moneymaking opportunities d. officers who serve as informers for the commission

Q: What term describes a nonviolent crime for financial gain, utilizing deception and committed by anyone having special technical and professional knowledge of business and government, irrespective of the person's occupation? a. corporate crime b. white-collar crime c. organized crime d. computer crime

Q: What is often described as the strictest form of probation for adults in the United States? a. intensive probation supervision b. split probation c. house arrest d. shock probation

Q: Officers who have adopted the police working personality are often all of the following, EXCEPT ________. a. authoritarian b. suspicious c. secure d. conservative

Q: In 1979, ________ was the eighth index crime to be added to the UCR's Crime Index. a. arson b. motor vehicle theft c. robbery d. murder

Q: Which of the following intermediate sanctions exposes offenders to a highly regimented environment involving strict discipline, physical training, and hard labor? a. shock probation b. intensive probation c. shock incarceration d. mixed sentencing

Q: Who coined the phrase working personality of police officers? a. James Q. Wilson b. Jerome Skolnick c. Kenneth Davis d. Lawrence Sherman

Q: According to a 1992 government-sponsored study, only ________ percent of forcible rapes were reported to the police. a. 41 b. 5 c. 34 d. 16

Q: Who makes the release decision when an offender is sentenced to shock parole? a. the prosecutor b. the parole board c. the U.S. Sentencing Commission d. the appellate court judge

Q: The research reported in Enhancing Police Integrity, published by the Department of Justice, found that ________ is(are) important in shaping the ethics of police officers. a. media and human relations skills b. hand-to-hand tactics c. an agency's culture of integrity d. set work-hour standards

Q: Each of the following are UCR/NIBRS property crime offenses, EXCEPT ________. a. motor vehicle theft b. larceny-theft c. burglary d. robbery

Q: Which type of sentence requires that offenders serve time in a local jail before a period of supervised probation? a. shock probation b. split sentence c. shock incarceration d. mixed sentence

Q: ________ profiling is known as any police action initiated on the basis of the race, ethnicity, or national origin of a suspect rather than on the behavior of that individual or on information that identifies the individual as being, or having been, engaged in criminal activity. a. Religious b. Ethnic c. Racial d. Biased

Q: The following are UCR/NIBRS violent crime offenses, EXCEPT ________. a. aggravated assault b. burglary c. forcible rape d. murder

Q: Pennsylvania Board of Probation and Parole v. Scott declined to extend the exclusionary rule to searches conducted by ________ even when such searches yield evidence. a. probation officers b. parole officers c. police officers d. prosecutors

Q: Which among the following examples is the lowest-level of police corruption? a. violent crimes b. playing favorites c. property crimes d. denial of civil rights

Q: For which of the following crimes would you find information in the National Crime Victimization Survey? a. kidnapping b. murder c. victimless d. robbery

Q: Which of the following is not one of the most frequent violations for which revocation occurs? a. armed robbery b. failure to participate in a stipulated treatment program c. alcohol or drug abuse while under supervision d. failure to report to a probation or parole office

Q: The increasing formalization of police work and the accompanying rise in public acceptance of the police is known as ________. a. police ethics b. police professionalism c. intelligence-led policing d. criminal intelligence

Q: Law enforcement agencies do NOT submit regular reports to the FBI on which crime? a. rape b. robbery c. murder d. arson

Q: Who makes federal parole decisions? a. the sentencing judge b. the American Civil Liberties Union c. the United States Parole Commission d. the warden of the prison where the inmate is confined

Q: Which Supreme Court case is NOT directly relevant to police civil liability issues? a. Malley v. Briggs b. Biscoe v.Arlington County c. Davis v.Dallas d. City of Canton, Ohio v. Harris

Q: The U.S. Congress authorized the attorney general to gather and publish the Uniform Crime Reports in ________. a. 1990 b. 1960 c. 1930 d. 1980

Q: Nationwide, approximately what percentage of inmates successfully complete parole? a. 35% b. 9% c. 23% d. 52%

Q: The intentional use of a firearm or other instrument resulting in a high probability of death is known as ________. a. deadly force b. excessive force c. physical force d. force factor

Q: All of the following crimes are UCR/NIBRS Part I offenses, EXCEPT ________. a. murder b. robbery c. drug use d. forcible rape

Q: Which of the following sentences is a prisoner reentry strategy? a. community service b. probation c. restitution d. parole

Q: Which of the following branches of a police organization is tasked with investigating charges of wrongdoing involving members of the department? a. civil rights b. internal affairs c. background investigations d. ethics unit

Q: Which of the following is NOT a classification of burglary according to the UCR/NIBRS Program? a. forcible entry b. lawful entry where force is used c. unlawful entry where no force is used d. attempted forcible entry

Q: According to a Bureau of Justice Statistics study, about what percentage of people convicted of homicide are placed on probation? a. 0% b. 25% c. 16% d. 3%

Q: Which of the following U.S. Supreme Court cases specified the conditions under which deadly force could be used to apprehend a suspected felon? a. Hunter v. Bryant b. Saucier v.Katz c. Tennessee v. Garner d. Bivens v. Six Unknown Federal Agents

Q: Among major crimes known to police in 2012, which Part I offense had the lowest number of occurrences? a. motor vehicle theft b. assault c. murder d. larceny-theft

Q: What is the most common form of criminal sentencing in the United States? a. shock incarceration b. house arrest c. imprisonment d. probation

Q: Which of the following is an example of a biological weapon? a. sonic weapons b. flash guns c. pepper spray d. anthrax

Q: Murder is considered as a ________ crime. a. hate b. property c. violent d. corporate

Q: Which U.S. Supreme Court decision ruled that probation officers may search a probationer's residence without a search warrant? a. Griffin v. Wisconsin b. Escoe v. Zerbst c. Morrissey v. Brewer d. Mempa v. Rhay

Q: Which of the following refers to the phenomenon of force being used unacceptably, often on a department-wide basis? a. threat of force b. illegal use of force c. excessive use of force d. police use of force

Q: The National Crime Victimization Survey does NOT include information about which crime? a. burglary b. robbery c. murder d. assault

Q: Probation is sanctioned by the ________. a. parole board b. victim c. investigating officer d. court

Q: ________ is the collection and analysis of information to produce an intelligence end product designed to inform police decision making at both the tactical and strategic levels. a. Intelligence-led policing b. Criminal intelligence c. Bivens action d. Police ethics

Q: Which of the following data sources asks respondents to reveal an illegal activity in which they have been involved? a. victimization data b. criminal justice data c. self-report data d. crime offense data

Q: Which Supreme Court case held that parole boards do not have to specify the evidence used in deciding to deny parole? a. Kelly v. Robinson b. Mempa v. Rhay c. Morrissey v. Brewer d. Greenholtz v. Nebraska

Q: In which of the following cases did the Court establish the standard of "objective reasonableness" under which an officer's use of deadly force could be assessed in terms of "reasonableness at the moment"? a. Tennessee v. Garner b. Graham v. Connor c. Patrick v. Murphy d. Davis v. Dallas

Q: What term describes a classification of crimes along a particular dimension, such as legal categories, offender motivation, victim behavior, or the characteristics of individual offenders? a. crime mapping b. crime profiling c. crime analysis d. crime typology

Q: Which Supreme Court case held that a probationer should have the opportunity for counsel before a deferred prison sentence can be imposed? a. Greenholtz v. Nebraska b. Kelly v. Robinson c. Mempa v. Rhay d. Minnesota v. Murphy

Q: The application of an amount or frequency of force greater than that required to compel compliance from a willing or unwilling subject is known as ________. a. threat of force b. unreasonable force c. deadly force d. excessive force

Q: Most aggravated assaults are committed with ________. a. blunt objects b. hands c. knives d. firearms

Q: Which of the following is NOT cited as a disadvantage of probation and parole? a. Probation and parole programs are underused, enabling practitioners to adequately supervise offenders on their caseloads. b. Probation and parole inflict relatively less severe or no punishment upon the offender. c. Probation and parole result in increased social costs. d. Probation and parole expose the community to greater risk than does incarceration.