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Earth Science
Q:
An earthquake that occurs in association with anthropogenic activity, such as waste water injection wells, is known as
A) tectonic seismicity.
B) induced seismicity.
C) a tectonic earthquake.
D) an earthquake. (There is no special name for such an implausible event.)
Q:
An earthquake is best described as
A) the point within the Earth where seismic waves originate.
B) the sharp release of energy in the Earth's crust that creates seismic waves.
C) the amount of ground displacement along a fault.
D) the amount of stress rocks along plate boundaries experience.
Q:
What type of convergent boundary associated with orogeny is illustrated here?
A) oceanic plate-continental plate collision
B) oceanic plate-oceanic plate collision
C) continental-platecontinental plate collision
Q:
What type of convergent boundary associated with orogeny is illustrated here?
A) oceanic plate-continental plate collision
B) oceanic plate-oceanic plate collision
C) continental-platecontinental plate collision
Q:
What type of convergent boundary associated with orogeny is illustrated here?
A) oceanic plate-continental plate collision
B) oceanic plate-oceanic plate collision
C) continental-platecontinental plate collision
Q:
Which of the following is not one of the three types of tectonic activity that causes orogensis along convergent boundaries?
A) oceanic plate-continental plate collision
B) oceanic plate-oceanic plate collision
C) continental-platecontinental plate collision
D) oceanic plate-continental plate collision, oceanic plate-oceanic plate collision, and continental-platecontinental plate collision are all correct.
Q:
The Appalachians formed as a result of the
A) Laramide orogeny.
B) Alleghany orogeny.
C) Cordilleran orogeny.
D) Alpine orogeny.
Q:
The relatively young mountains along the western margins of North and South American plates are referred to as the
A) Cordilleran system.
B) Eurasian-Himalayan system.
C) Alleghany orogeny.
D) Sierra Nevadan orogeny.
Q:
Which of the following shows the general sequency of an orogeny?
A) thickening of crust through accretion or magma intrusionupliftweathering and/or erosion
B) upliftthickening of crust through accretion or magma intrusionweathering and/or erosion
C) weathering and/or erosionupliftthickening of crust through accretion or magma intrusion
D) thickening of crust through accretion or magma intrusionweathering and/or erosionuplift
Q:
Orogenesis refers to
A) the beginning of extensive faulting.
B) a general term for a mountain-building episode that thickens continental crust.
C) a general thinning of the crust.
D) the formation of mountains without faulting, folding, or the capture of migrating terranes.
Q:
The Basin and Range Province in the western United States is a result of ________ faulting produced by ________ forces.
A) reverse; tensional
B) reverse; compressional
C) normal; tensional
D) normal; compressional
Q:
A large region identifiable by several topographic or geological traits is known as a
A) topographic region.
B) ecoregion.
C) physiographic province.
D) biome.
Q:
People often say that California is going to "fall into the ocean,". This idea is totally wrong because the San Andreas fault would have to be a ________ fault associated with ________ forces for this to happen.
A) normal; tension
B) normal; compression
C) reverse; tension
D) reverse; compression
E) strike-slip; compression
Q:
If one were to stack thick fabric fabric on top of one another, then push the opposite ends towards one another, resulting and bending and rumpling, this would illustrate what physical process?
A) faulting
B) folding
C) shear
D) tension
Q:
The presence of grabens and horsts indicates the occurrence of
A) volcanic activity.
B) rift activity.
C) collision activity.
D) strike-slip activity.
Q:
________ applies to upward-faulted blocks, whereas ________ applies to downward-faulted blocks.
A) horst; graben
B) graben; horst
C) normal; thrust
D) thrust; normal
Q:
The San Andreas system in California is an example of a
A) strike-slip fault.
B) transform fault.
C) thrust fault.
D) both a strike-slip and transform fault.
Q:
When lateral shear causes horizontal movement along a fault plane, the resulting fault is called a
A) lateral fault.
B) thrust fault.
C) normal fault.
D) strike-slip fault.
Q:
A ________ occurs when the fault plane forms a low angle relative to the horizontal, resulting in the overlying block being shifted over the underlying.
A) lateral fault
B) thrust fault
C) normal fault
D) strike-slip fault
Q:
An exposed fault plane with significant vertical extent is known as
A) a fracture zone.
B) an escarpment.
C) dome.
D) anticline.
Q:
Compressional stress along a fault resulting in rocks moving upward along the fault plane is an example of a
A) reverse fault.
B) lateral fault.
C) normal fault.
D) strike-slip fault.
Q:
Normal faults are associated with
A) tensional forces.
B) compressional forces.
C) plate convergence.
D) transcurrent forces.
Q:
Tensional stress along a fault can result in a dropped hanging-wall block relative to the footwall side, producing a
A) reverse fault.
B) thrust fault.
C) normal fault.
D) strike-slip fault.
Q:
Fault types are defined by
A) the tilt and orientation of the fault plane.
B) the amount of movement along the fault plane.
C) the amount of energy liberated during movement.
D) the type of rock material in which they occur.
Q:
When rock strata are strained beyond their ability to remain an intact unit, displacement occurs in a process known as
A) folding.
B) faulting.
C) broad warping.
D) stressing.
Q:
Which of the following is a cause of warping?
A) mantle convection
B) hot spots
C) isostatic adjustment
D) mantle convection, hot spots, and isostatic adjustment all cause warping
Q:
Warping produces bends in rocks that are ________ those produced by folding.
A) larger than
B) smaller than
C) the same size as
Q:
High mountains consisting of tightly folded and overthrust sedimentary rock layers, as well as metamorphic rocks, are formed
A) along midocean ridges during seafloor spreading activity and are subsequently uplifted above sea level in response to isostatic processes.
B) during plate collisions.
C) during volcanic eruptions.
D) in continental rift zones.
E) exclusively by magma intrusions.
Q:
The Zagros mountains of Iran is an example of
A) a series of faulted mountain blocks.
B) a zone of tension.
C) a zone of shearing motions.
D) a zone of compression and folding.
Q:
The horizontal line that defines the portion of the anticline or syncline with the maximum curvature is known as the
A) valley.
B) hinge.
C) trough.
D) basin.
Q:
Folded layers of rock can form a wavelike pattern of troughs and crests. The layers near the trough (i.e. downward fold) form
A) a syncline.
B) a tension zone.
C) an anticline.
D) a thrust fault.
Q:
Folded layers of rock can form a wavelike pattern of troughs and crests. The layers near the crest (i.e. the upward fold) form
A) a syncline.
B) a tension zone.
C) an anticline.
D) a thrust fault.
Q:
Strain, the amount of deformation undergone by an object, is expressed in rocks by
A) metamorphism.
B) breaking and removal.
C) folding or faulting.
D) bending.
Q:
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A) tension normal fault
B) compression shortening or folding
C) tension stretching or faulting
D) shearing stretching or faulting
Q:
The Wrangellia terranes refer to
A) a former volcanic island arc that migrated 10,000 km (6200 mi.) to its present location along the western margin of North America.
B) a terrane in southern Tibet that migrated to the region during the Palezoic from Australia.
C) a mountain range that became part of the Himalayas.
D) pieces of crust that moved with the Pacific plate to their present location near Japan.
Q:
Which of the following is not correct regarding terranes?
A) They are smaller-scale migrating crustal pieces; i.e., microplates.
B) They may accrete onto continents and thereby increase the size of the continents.
C) They are framed by fracture zones.
D) They are very similar in composition to the continents to which they attach.
E) They can move thousands of miles from their place of origin.
Q:
Terranes refer to
A) the topography of a tract of land.
B) subducted oceanic crust that is melted and later reaches the surface in volcanic eruptions or cools in the subsurface as an intrusive body.
C) fragmented crustal material from one plate and accreted to another plate.
D) a large region where a craton is exposed at the surface.
Q:
Which of the following properly describes the formation of continental crust?
A) All continental crust was formed millions of years ago. There is no active continental crust being formed.
B) The formation of continental crust is independent of the formation of oceanic crust, involving only volcanism over the land masses.
C) The formation of continental crust involves the entire sequence of seafloor spreading, subduction, remelting of oceanic crust, and subsequent rise of the remelted material.
D) New continental crust is formed essentially in the same many as oceanic crust from upwelling at mid-continental ridges.
Q:
The general term used to describes subducted oceanic crusts that incorporates seawater and sediments is
A) sial.
B) sima.
C) batholiths.
D) melt.
Q:
If you wanted to avoid earthquakes, which of the following areas would be the safest to live?
A) convergent plate boundary
B) divergent plate boundary
C) island arc along a subduction zone
D) shield
Q:
Most cratons date to the
A) Precambrian eon.
B) Paleozoic era.
C) Devonian period.
D) Paleocene epoch.
Q:
The nucleus of old crystalline rock in each of the principal continental masses is called a
A) basalt mass.
B) continental shield, or craton.
C) mountain mass.
D) composite zone.
Q:
A continental craton is best described as
A) the product of active folding and faulting.
B) the surface accumulation of molten rock.
C) the inactive remains of ancient tectonic activity.
D) a landform undergoing constant tectonic activity.
Q:
The variety of surface features on Earth results from
A) endogenic processes only.
B) exogenic processes only.
C) Both endogenic and exogenic processes.
Q:
Large areas of depressions are found in
A) North America.
B) Asia.
C) Australia.
D) Antarctica.
Q:
Large areas of high tablelands are found in
A) Africa.
B) Australia.
C) Greenland.
D) Central Asia.
Q:
Large portions of North and South America, Asia, and Australia are dominated by which topographic region?
A) plains
B) basins
C) widely space mountains
D) high tablelands
Q:
Africa is dominated by which topographic region?
A) plains
B) mountains
C) hills and low tablelands
D) high tablelands
Q:
A topographic region that is characterized by local relief of more than 600 m (2,000 ft) is a
A) low tableland.
B) high tableland.
C) mountain.
D) depression.
Q:
A topographic region that is characterized by local relief of less than 100 m (325 ft.) is considered a
A) plain.
B) high tableland.
C) hill or low tableland.
D) depression.
Q:
A topographic region that is characterized by local relief of more than 100 m (325 ft.), but less than 600 m (2000 ft.), is considered a
A) plain.
B) high tableland.
C) hill or low tableland.
D) mountain.
Q:
The six types of topographic regions are defined based on
A) arbitrary elevation other descriptive criteria in common use.
B) complex statistical analyses of surface relief variation across the surface of Earth.
C) local criteria that have never been universally recognized.
D) logarithmic relationships applied to elevation.
Q:
A hypsographic curve is
A) a graph that shows the change in temperature with depth below the surface of a continent.
B) a graph that shows the change in temperature with depth below the surface of the ocean floor.
C) a generalized curve showing Earth's surface by area and elevation in relation to sea level.
D) a graph that shows Earth is of relatively high relief.
E) a graph that shows Earth's relief is great when compared to its diameter.
Q:
The vertical relief of the Earth (highest point to lowest point) is approximately
A) 5 km (3.1 mi).
B) 10 km (6.2 mi).
C) 20 km (12.4 mi).
D) 30 km (18.6 mi).
Q:
The average elevation of the exposed land is
A) -3800 m (-12,470 ft.).
B) 875 m (2870 ft.).
C) -2070 m (-6790 ft.).
D) 100 m (325 ft.).
Q:
The average elevation of ocean depth is
A) -2070 m (-6790 ft.).
B) -3800 m (-12,470 ft.).
C) 100 m (325 ft.).
D) 875 m (2870 ft.).
Q:
The measurement of land elevation relative to sea level is known as
A) bathymetry.
B) hypsometry.
C) topography.
D) geodesy.
Q:
Approximately what percentage of Earth's surface is exposed above sea level?
A) 18 percent
B) 29 percent
C) 49 percent
D) 62 percent
Q:
Which of the following is an example of a third order of relief?
A) the Alps
B) the South American Plate
C) Iraz Volcano
D) the Tibetan Plateau
Q:
The most detailed order of relief applies to ________ order relief features.
A) first
B) second
C) third
Q:
Which of the following is an example of a second order of relief?
A) the North American plate
B) Pike's Peak
C) the Canadian and American Rockies
D) Mt. Capulin
Q:
Which of the following is an example of a first order of relief?
A) the Alps and Rockies
B) the Tibetan Plateau
C) the Shenandoah Valley
D) North America plate
Q:
The concept of "orders of relief" refers to
A) the ordering of surface features based on height.
B) the ordering of surface features based on their time of origin.
C) the classification of landscapes based on scale.
D) the rate at which stress is relieved in the crust.
Q:
________ provides the highest resolution for mapping Earth's surface.
A) LiDAR
B) Radar
C) GPS
D) Passive remote sensing platforms, such as Landsat 8,
Q:
Which of the following is an example of the tools scientists use to study topography?
A) LiDAR
B) radar
C) GPS
D) LiDAR, radar, and GPS are all used in the study of topography.
Q:
The general term for the undulations and other variations in the shape of the Earth's surface is called
A) topography.
B) relief.
C) geomorphology.
D) terrain.
Q:
Vertical elevation differences in a local landscape are referred to as
A) relief.
B) an order of relief.
C) topography.
D) crust.
Q:
What were the important effects of the 1991 Mount Pinatubo eruption?
Q:
Discuss why short term predictions of earthquakes are not yet entirely reliable, while volcanoes are more easily predicted.
Q:
Compare and contrast explosive and effusive eruptions. Include their locations, the chemical composition of the magma, and the landforms they typically produce.
Q:
Describe various volcanic landforms.
Q:
What are the different ways of measuring the intensity and/or effects of earthquakes? Which do you think is best, and why?
Q:
Define and distinguish between the following: epicenter, focus, foreshock, aftershock.
Q:
Draw and label a diagram of the three types of convergent plate boundaries and their typical orogenies.
Q:
Draw and label a simple sketch showing the three major types of faults.
Q:
Describe the creative forces and typical characteristics of the three major types of faults.
Q:
Draw and label a simple sketch showing common folded landscape features.
Q:
Discuss the process and causes of folding, and distinguish between anticline and syncline.
Q:
Describe the typical formation and characteristics of a continental shield.
Q:
Which of the following is not correct regarding the metamorphism process?
A) It can be accomplished by heat.
B) It can be accomplished by pressure.
C) It involves melting of the original rock.
D) It can be accomplished by chemical processes.