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Q:
A thunderstorm is associated with ________ clouds.
A) cirrostratus
B) stratocumulus
C) cumulonimbus
D) altostratus
Q:
Which cloud type can indicate an oncoming storm, especially if they thicken and lower in elevation?
A) fog
B) cumulus
C) stratocumulus
D) cirrus
Q:
Which of the following is true regarding cirrostratus clouds?
A) They are uniform, featureless, and grey like high fog.
B) The Sun's outline is just visible through these clouds.
C) They form a veil of ice crystals that creates a halo around the Moon or Sun.
D) They are sharply outlined, and billowy.
Q:
Which of the following is a middle-level cloud type?
A) cirrostratus
B) stratocumulus
C) cumulonimbus
D) altostratus
Q:
Which of the following are correctly matched?
A) flat or layered clouds - cumulus
B) puffy or globular clouds - cirroform
C) puffy or globular clouds - cumuliform
D) wispy clouds - water droplets
Q:
Clouds that have vertical development and produce thunderstorms are called
A) stratocumulus.
B) cumulonimbus.
C) nimbostratus.
D) cumulus.
Q:
Which of the following best describes a cloud?
A) Suspended raindrops that have not yet fallen under the force of gravity.
B) Aggregated condensation nuclei.
C) A visible aggregation of tiny moisture droplets and ice crystals suspended in the air.
D) Uniform featureless smoke lighter than the force of gravity.
Q:
Which of the following is true regarding condensation nuclei?
A) Maritime air masses generally possess more nuclei per cubic meter than continental air masses.
B) Condensation nuclei is rare in urban environments.
C) Continental air masses average about a billion nuclei per cubic meter.
D) Continental air masses contain more than 10 times the condensation nuclei of maritime air masses.
Q:
Condensation nuclei over the ocean consist primarily of
A) pieces of coral.
B) minute fragments of sea shells.
C) salt particles.
D) clay particles.
Q:
High altitude wispy clouds made of ice crystals are classed as
A) cumumliform.
B) cirroform.
C) stratiform.
Q:
Vertically developed puffy and globular clouds are classed as
A) cumumliform.
B) cirroform.
C) stratiform.
Q:
Flat and puffy clouds with horizontal development are classed as
A) cumumliform.
B) cirroform.
C) stratiform.
Q:
Areas between 25 to 35 latitude usually become ________ because this area is dominated by air that is sinking and being ________.
A) deserts; cooled by expansion
B) deserts; heated by compression
C) rain forests; cooled by expansion
D) rain forests; heated by compression
Q:
The wet adiabatic rate is ________ than the dry adiabatic rate because ________.
A) greater; condensation heats the air
B) greater; condensation cools the air
C) less; condensation heats the air
D) less; condensation cools the air
Q:
Assume a warm air parcel, at sea level, has a temperature of 21C (70F) and begins to rise upward. Assume it becomes saturated at 1000 m (3300 ft) altitude, and continues to rise to 2000 m (6600 ft.) altitude. What would the approximate temperature of the parcel be at an elevation of 2000 m (6600 ft.)?
A) 1C (44.6F)
B) 5C (46.4F)
C) 8.2C (48.2F)
D) 9C (41.F)
Q:
If you visited Mount Shasta City (elevation 900 m [3000 ft.]) and found the outside air temperature to be 27C (81F), what would be the air temperature at the summit of Mount Shasta (elevation 4200 m [14,000 ft.]) at that momentassuming that the temperature conditions with altitude change at an average, or normal, lapse rate?
A) 2C (35.6F)
B) 48C (118.4F)
C) 5.9C (42.5F)
D) 10C (39.2F)
Q:
The difference between the dry adiabatic rate and the moist adiabatic rate is on account of
A) the latent heat of condensation.
B) less atmospheric pressure.
C) altitudinal temperature differences.
D) the specific heat of water.
Q:
Which of the following is correctly matched.
A) Normal lapse rate3.5C/1,000 m
B) Environmental lapse rate6.4 C/1000 m
C) Dry adiabatic rate10 C/1000 m
D) Moist adiabatic lape late15 C/1000 m
Q:
When stable air is forced to lift as it passes over a mountain range, the air may become saturated and condensation may occur. In this case, the air is
A) stable.
B) unstable.
C) conditionally unstable.
Q:
A parcel of air, with less than 100% relative humidity, that is rising because of heat energy derived from the surface is
A) stable.
B) unstable.
C) conditionally unstable.
Q:
The dry adiabatic rate (DAR) is
A) 6 C per 1000 m (3.3 F per 1000 ft).
B) the rate used for a saturated parcel of air.
C) a term that refers to the temperature decrease in the still, calm air that surrounds a moving air parcel.
D) 10 C per 1000 m (5.5 F per 1000 ft.).
Q:
Air that is not saturated will cool or heat at a rate of ________ as it rises or descends, respectively.
A) 10 C per 1000 m (5.5 F per 1000 ft.)
B) 6 C per 1000 m (3.3 F per 1000 ft.)
C) 6.4 C per 1000 m (3.5 F per 1000 ft.)
Q:
When the environmental lapse rate is between the dry and moist adiabatic lapse rates conditions are described as
A) adiabatic.
B) stability.
C) conditionally unstable.
D) unstable.
Q:
An air parcel is considered unstable when it
A) either remains as it is, or changes its initial position.
B) continues to rise until it reaches an altitude at which the surrounding air has a similar temperature.
C) it resists displacement upward.
D) it ceases to ascend.
Q:
The two opposing forces determining the vertical position of a parcel of air are
A) buoyant force and gravitational force.
B) centrifugal force and coriolis force.
C) coriolis force and buoyant force.
D) gravitational force and pressure gradient force.
Q:
The general term that refers to the tendency of a parcel of air to either remain in place or change its initial position is
A) adiabatic.
B) stability.
C) conditional instability.
D) stasis.
Q:
The point where saturation begins in a rising air parcel is
A) the dry adiabatic rate.
B) the moist adiabatic rate.
C) the lifting condensation level.
D) cloud condensation nuclei.
Q:
Which of the following would be true of the humidity above the hot, dry, subtropical deserts of the world during the daytime?
A) The specific humidity would be very low.
B) The relative humidity would always be high.
C) The saturation vapor pressure would be low.
Q:
Which of the following normally would be true of the humidity above the hot, moist, tropical rain forests of the world?
A) The specific humidity would be low.
B) The relative humidity would be high.
C) The saturation vapor pressure would be low.
Q:
A large difference in temperature between a wet bulb and a dry bulb on a sling psychrometer indicates
A) that the air is cooling by adiabatic expansion.
B) that the relative humidity is high.
C) that substantial evaporation is occurring from the wet bulb.
Q:
The smaller the difference in temperature between the wet bulb and dry bulb on a sling psychrometer, the ________ the air is and the ________.
A) drier; further the air temperature is from dew point
B) drier; closer the air temperature is to dew point
C) wetter; further the air temperature is from dew point
D) wetter; closer the air temperature is to dew point
Q:
The greater the difference in temperature between the wet bulb and dry bulb on a sling psychrometer, the ________ the air is and the ________ the relative humidity.
A) drier; higher
B) drier; lower
C) wetter; higher
D) wetter; lower
Q:
If the saturation vapor pressure increases while the amount of water vapor in the air remains constant, this would indicate
A) that the temperature had increased.
B) that the temperature had decreased as a result of the loss of heat energy.
C) that the air was cooling by expansion.
D) none of the above
Q:
Assuming the amount of water vapor remains constant, a temperature increase will ________ the specific humidity.
A) increase
B) decrease
C) have no effect on
D) increase until the dew point is met, then decrease
Q:
Which of the following is used to measure relative humidity?
A) aneroid barometers
B) hair hygrometers
C) anemometer
D) weather vane
Q:
Which of the following would cause the evaporation rate to decrease?
A) increased water availability
B) increased relative humidity
C) increased temperature
D) increased wind speed
Q:
If a kilogram of air at 20C (68F) has a specific humidity of 7.5 g/kg, the relative humidity is
A) 25%.
B) 50%.
C) 75%.
D) 100%.
Q:
A humidity measure that remains constant as temperature and pressure change, and which is expressed as a mass of water vapor per mass (g/kg) of air, is
A) specific humidity.
B) vapor pressure.
C) relative humidity.
D) the dew-point.
Q:
On a typical day, the point of highest relative humidity is associated with
A) the time of the highest temperature.
B) the time of the lowest temperature.
C) solar noon.
D) dusk.
Q:
When temperatures are below freezing, the temperature at which air becomes saturated leading to the formation of frost is the
A) dew point.
B) frost point.
C) absolute humidity.
D) relative humidity.
Q:
A mass of air always becomes saturated when it reaches the
A) highest temperature of the day.
B) lowest temperature of the day.
C) specific humidity point.
D) dew-point temperature.
Q:
At saturation, the further addition of water vapor or a decrease in temperature results in
A) condensation.
B) evaporation.
C) freezing.
D) sublimation.
Q:
________ occurs when the relative humidity is 100%.
A) Saturation
B) Evaporation
C) Sublimation
D) Deposition
Q:
As temperature increases, the amount of energy available for evaporation
A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) remains constant.
Q:
If the amount of water vapor in the air remained constant, but the air temperature increased throughout the day, the relative humidity would
A) increase.
B) decrease.
C) remain constant.
Q:
Relative humidity is
A) the amount of water vapor in the air compared to the normal amount.
B) the amount of moisture in the air relative to your own sensible feelings.
C) the amount of water vapor in the air relative to the water vapor capacity of the air.
D) a basically unused concept when it comes to weather topics.
Q:
Most of the precipitation and evaporation on Earth takes place over the
A) land masses.
B) oceans.
C) poles of the planet.
D) ice caps and glaciers combined.
Q:
As temperature increases, the saturation vapor pressure
A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) remains constant.
Q:
The portion of air pressure exerted by water vapor is the
A) vapor pressure.
B) absolute humidity.
C) psychrometer.
D) dew point.
Q:
In which of the following months would the relative humidity likely be the highest (assuming a Northern Hemisphere station).
A) January
B) March
C) July
D) September
Q:
The capacity of air for water vapor is primarily a function of the ________ of both the air and water vapor.
A) density
B) volume
C) pressure
D) temperature
Q:
Water vapor in the atmosphere is called
A) water.
B) deposition.
C) sublimation.
D) humidity.
Q:
When water evaporates, it ________ heat energy and ________ the surrounding air.
A) absorbs; cools
B) absorbs heats
C) releases; cools
D) releases; heats
Q:
When water condenses, it ________ heat energy and ________ the surrounding air.
A) absorbs; cools
B) absorbs heats
C) releases; cools
D) releases; heats
Q:
The density of pure ice is
A) greater than that of water.
B) less than that of water.
C) the same as water.
D) highly variable.
Q:
Below a temperature of 4C (39F), water ________ and its density ________.
A) contracts; increases
B) contracts; decreases.
C) expands; increases
D) expands; decreases
Q:
The phase changes water and other substances undergo are based on
A) gravitational energy stored within the electron orbitals of atoms.
B) the amount of motion of molecules and the strength of the bonds between them.
C) nuclear fusion processes between atoms of a substance.
D) nuclear fission processes between atoms of a substance.
E) diabatic forces acting on the molecules.
Q:
Hydrogen bonding results from the fact that
A) the hydrogen end of a water molecule is positively charged and the oxygen end is negatively charged.
B) the oxygen end of a water molecule is positively charged and the hydrogen end is negatively charged.
C) nuclear fusion occurs between the ends of water molecules.
D) water molecules experience a strong gravitational attraction to one another.
E) there is no electrical charge on a water molecule.
Q:
In winter, freezing water can break pipes and even crack engine blocks.Why does this happen?
A) Water expands in volume as it freezes.
B) Ice is denser than water.
C) Water contracts as it cools and freezes.
D) It occurs because of the latent heat of fusion.
Q:
The process of deposition in the atmosphere produces
A) rain.
B) water vapor.
C) frost.
D) ice.
Q:
Which of the following phase changes decreases the temperature of the air?
A) water to ice
B) ice to water
C) steam to water
D) steam to ice
Q:
The latent heat of melting and the latent heat of freezing involve the absorption or release of ________ calories per gram of water changing state.
A) 80
B) 100
C) 540
D) 585
Q:
Which of the following is true regarding the evaporation of water?
A) The phase change involves the latent heat of sublimation.
B) The phase change involves the latent heat of evaporation.
C) The phase change involves the latent heat of deposition.
D) The phase change involves the latent heat of condensation.
Q:
As water cools from room temperature to 4C (39F), it ________ and its density ________.
A) contracts; increases
B) contracts; decreases
C) expands; increases
D) expands; decreases
Q:
When water freezes, its volume
A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) remains the same as in the liquid state.
Q:
When water freezes, its density
A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) remains the same as in the liquid state.
Q:
What is the heat energy involved in the change of state, or phase, in water?
A) mechanical heat
B) sensible heat
C) fusion heat
D) latent heat
Q:
The term deposition refers to
A) water freezing to ice.
B) ice melting to water.
C) vapor condensing into liquid.
D) water vapor freezing to ice.
Q:
Which of the following phase changes of water is incorrectly matched?
A) Sublimationenergy absorbed
B) Depositionenergy released
C) Evaporationenergy released
D) Meltingenergy absorbed
Q:
Which of the following phase changes of water is incorrectly matched?
A) Deposition: gas to solid
B) Vaporization: solid to gas
C) Melting: solid to liquid
D) Condensation: gas to liquid
Q:
Water movement through the soil and water held in a cylindrical tube result from a common phenomenon. What is this phenomenon?
A) barometric pressure
B) surface tension
C) capillary action
D) vacuum suction
Q:
The ability of water to "climb" in a cylinder tube is an example of
A) barometric pressure.
B) surface tension.
C) capillary action.
D) vacuum suction.
Q:
Some insects can walk on water. This is possible
A) because of their specific heat.
B) because of their kinetic energy.
C) because of a water property known as surface tension.
D) because of a water property known as capillarity.
Q:
Surface tension and capillarity are the result of
A) hydrogen bonding.
B) gravitational attraction.
C) magnetic bonding.
D) molecular hold.
Q:
Water molecules bind tightly to one another. This is a result of
A) hydrogen bonding.
B) covalent bonding.
C) atomic friction.
D) molecular hold.
Q:
The hydrogen bonding in water creates ________, a cohesive force that enables one to slightly overfill a glass with water or allows denser objects, such as a lengthwise steel needle, to float on water.
A) capillary action
B) surface tension
C) heat exchange
D) friction
Q:
The movement of water throughout the atmosphere, hydrosphere, lithosphere, and biosphere is known as the
A) biogeochemical cycle.
B) hydroflux.
C) capillary movement.
D) hydrologic cycle.
Q:
Out of all the water present in the Earth systems, ________ is stored in the atmosphere.
A) less than 0.03%
B) approximately 2%
C) a variable amount, but averaging 50%
D) 15%
Q:
Describe the formative characteristics of advection fogs, valley fog, evaporation fog, and radiation fog along with their usual locations.
Q:
List and describe the cloud classes and their associated cloud types, along with a discussion of the type of weather associated with each.