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Earth Science
Q:
Oxisols have a ________ cation-exchange and, therefore, ________ fertility.
A) high; high
B) low; high
C) low; low
D) high; low
Q:
Which of the following is among the most mature soils on Earth?
A) Andisols
B) Inceptisols
C) Entisols
D) Oxisols
Q:
In terms of pedogenic regimes, the process that results in an accumulation of humus overlaying a thick, water saturated layer of clay in cold, wet climates with poor drainage conditions is
A) laterization
B) salinization.
C) calcification.
D) podzolization.
E) gleization.
Q:
Podzolization is likely to occur
A) in the tropics.
B) in areas with broadleaf forests.
C) in humid climate regions.
D) in areas characterized coniferous forests.
Q:
In terms of pedogenic regimes, soil acidification associated with forest soils in cool climates is
A) laterization.
B) salinization.
C) calcification.
D) podzolization.
E) gleization.
Q:
Calcification is likely to occur
A) in areas with Vertisols.
B) in areas with Mollisols and Aridisols.
C) in tropical climate regions.
D) in areas characterized by coniferous forests.
Q:
In terms of pedogenic regimes, the process that produces an illuviated accumulation of calcium carbonate in continental climates is
A) laterization
B) salinization.
C) calcification.
D) podzolization.
E) gleization.
Q:
Salinization is likely to occur
A) in the tropics.
B) in areas of high potential evapotranspiration rates.
C) in humid climate regions.
D) in areas characterized by coniferous forests.
Q:
In terms of pedogenic regimes, the process that concentrates salts in soils in climates with high evapotranspiration is
A) laterization.
B) salinization.
C) calcification.
D) podzolization.
E) gleization.
Q:
Laterization is likely to occur
A) in the tropics.
B) in areas of high potential evapotranspiration rates.
C) in humid climate regions.
D) in areas characterized by sandy soils and coniferous forests.
Q:
In terms of pedogenic regimes, the leaching process in humid and warm climates is known as
A) laterization
B) salinization.
C) calcification.
D) podzolization.
E) gleization.
Q:
Which of the following is correct about the U.S. soil classification system?
A) Soil variation is too complex for a single classification system, so many regional classification systems are used within the U.S.
B) The Soil Taxonomy is hierarchical, consisting of six categories from soil series to soil order.
C) The soil classification system was finalized in 1975 and no additional changes to it will be made.
D) It is primarily based on pedogenic regimes in which each soil-forming process is attached to a climatic region.
Q:
The lowest and most precise level of the U.S. soil classification system is
A) soil family.
B) soil order.
C) soil series.
D) soil group.
Q:
Which of the following areas has the highest rick of desertification?
A) the Sahel (Sub-Saharan Africa)
B) northeastern Australia
C) central Asia
D) Venezuela
Q:
Which of the following is not a factor contributing to desertification?
A) overgrazing
B) no-till agriculture
C) salinization
D) climate change
Q:
Worldwide, desertification is affecting an estimated ________ people.
A) 100,000
B) 1,000,000
C) 5,000,000
D) 1,000,000,000
Q:
The phenomenon of desert expansion along the margins of semiarid and arid lands is known as
A) deflation.
B) desertification.
C) erosion.
D) permeability.
Q:
Between 1982 and 2007, soil erosion on U.S. cropland
A) decreased by 43%.
B) increased by 25%
C) increased by 13%.
D) decreased by 21%.
Q:
The multiyear period of severe wind erosion and soil loss occurred in the Great Plains during the 1930s is known as
A) desertification.
B) the Grapes of Wrath.
C) the Black Blizzard.
D) the Dust Bowl.
Q:
The practice of leaving crop residue on the field between plantings to help prevent soil erosion is known as
A) slash and burn agriculture.
B) swidden.
C) shifting cultivation.
D) no-till agriculture.
Q:
Which of the following human activities may make soils more prone to erosion?
A) overcultivation
B) overgrazing
C) forest clearance
D) overcultivation, overgrazing,and forest clearance may all make soils more prone to erosion
Q:
A few centimeters' thickness of prime farmland soil may require ________ years to form.
A) 10
B) 50
C) 100
D) 500
Q:
Acidic soils
A) are exceptionally rare.
B) cause more rapid weathering and leaching of nutrients.
C) tend to be very fertile and excellent for agriculture purposes.
D) are high in calcium, magnesium, potassium, and sodium ions.
Q:
Why is cation-exchange capacity (CEC) an important soil characteristic?
A) CEC is an indication of the soil permeability; the lower the CEC the higher the permeability.
B) CEC is a measure of soil fertility; the higher the CEC the higher the soil fertility.
C) CEC is an indirect way to measure soil pH; it indicates whether the soil is neutral, alkaline, or acidic.
D) CEC is used to infer soil texture without having to use a soil texture triangle.
Q:
Carbon dioxide concentrations in soil are ________ than in the atmosphere because ________.
A) lower; transpiration
B) lower; plant photosynthesis
C) higher; ongoing respiration in the ground
D) higher; decay of dead plants and animals
Q:
A plant that is unable to extract needed water from soil has reached its
A) field capacity.
B) permeability.
C) wilting point.
D) porosity.
Q:
The term used to denote the part of a volume of soil that is filled with air, gases, or water is
A) soil texture.
B) porosity.
C) permeability.
D) soil structure.
Q:
In soil science, the term to describe the cohesion of soil particles is
A) soil texture.
B) permeability.
C) consistence.
D) soil structure.
Q:
Ped formation enhances
A) soil texture.
B) permeability.
C) soil horizons.
D) plasticity.
Q:
Rounded peds have ________ space between them than other peds, and are therefore ________ for plant growth.
A) less; better
B) less; worse
C) more; worse
D) more; better
Q:
Soil structure can be defined as which of the following?
A) crumb or granular
B) platy
C) blocky
D) prismatic
E) crumb or granular, platy, blocky, or prismatic are all type of soil structure
Q:
The smallest natural lump or cluster of soil particles is known as a
A) horizon.
B) ped.
C) profile.
D) separate.
Q:
________ refers to the size and shape of the aggregates of particles of soil.
A) Soil texture
B) Soil consistence
C) Soil structure
D) Soil plasticity
Q:
A soil that is 40% sand, 40% silt, and 20% clay is classified as
A) loam.
B) silty clay.
C) silt loam.
D) clay loam.
Q:
A soil that is 20% sand, 60% silt, and 20% clay is classified as
A) sandy clay.
B) sandy clay loam.
C) silt loam.
D) clay loam.
Q:
A roughly equal mix of sand, silt, and clay is called
A) humus.
B) regolith.
C) solum.
D) loam.
Q:
Soil separates refers to
A) differing soil colors in a pedon.
B) individual mineral particles, such as sand, silt, and clay.
C) the different soil horizons.
D) pebbles, gravel, cobble, and other materials greater than 2 mm in diameter found in soils.
Q:
Which of the following is correct regarding the soil physical property of soil?
A) Dark soils always indicate high organic content.
B) Despite the imporantance of color in describing soils, there is no standard methods for standardized descriptions.
C) Soil color is used solely to determine the moisture content of soildarker soils have a higher moisture content, whereas lighter soils have less water content.
D) Color reflects composition and chemical makeup of a soil.
Q:
Which of the following is not a physical property used to distinguish soils?
A) color
B) texture
C) porosity
D) moisture
E) temperature
Q:
The horizon identified as regolith is the ________ horizon.
A) A
B) O
C) E
D) B
E) C
Q:
The horizon in which leached materials from other horizons is accumulated is the ________ horizon.
A) A
B) O
C) E
D) B
E) C
Q:
The horizon in which water moves fine particles downward in a process called eluviation is the ________ horizon.
A) A
B) O
C) E
D) B
E) C
Q:
The horizon that is commonly called topsoil is the ________ horizon.
A) A
B) O
C) E
D) B
E) C
Q:
The organic rich horizon found at the top of the soil profile is the ________ horizon.
A) A
B) O
C) E
D) B
E) C
Q:
Which of the following soil horizon designations is i the correct sequence from the surface to the bedrock?
A) O, E, C, B, A
B) A, B, C, O, R
C) S, O, I, L
D) O, A, E, B, C
Q:
A vertical section of soil is generally organized into distinct horizontal layers called
A) soil profiles.
B) pedons.
C) soil horizons.
D) polypedons.
Q:
The basic sampling unit, in soil surveys representing all the characteristics and variability used for classification, is
A) soil profile.
B) pedon.
C) soil horizon.
D) polypedon.
Q:
A vertical cross section of soil extending from the surface to the deepest extent of plant root activity or to the regolith and bedrock is known as a
A) pedon.
B) soil profile.
C) soil horizon.
D) polypedon.
Q:
Soils will develop at faster rates in which of the following environments?
A) hot and dry
B) cold and dry
C) warm and humid
D) in areas where they can develop directly from bedrock, regardless of climate conditions
Q:
Where would one likely find the deepest soil development?
A) on steep slopes
B) level or nearly level grounds
C) moderately sloping, south facing hills
D) over the oldest geological formations in an area, regardless of slope
Q:
Which of the following best describes the role of biological activity in soils development?
A) Broadleaf trees tend to increase the alkalinity of soil, whereas needleleaf trees increase the acidity.
B) Earthworms increase soil porosity and contribute to soil movement and organic content.
C) Plant roots provide channels for air and water movement in soils.
D) All organisms living in, on, and over the soil, influence soil development and characteristics: they can influence the pH, the organic matter, chemical content, and biological content of soils.
Q:
In regards to soil-formation, which of the following best describes the role of climate?
A) Because all soils are ancient, they show the climatic conditions of the period in which they formed.
B) Of the five principle soil-forming factors, climate is the least significant with little correlation between soil and climates worldwide.
C) Temperature and moisture determine the chemical reactions, organic activity, and water movement within soils.
D) Relative humidity and atmospheric pressure are the dormant climatic factors that influence soil development.
Q:
Which of the following is not one of the five primary soil-forming factors?
A) topography
B) climate
C) human activity
D) biological activity
E) parent material
Q:
Which of the following best describes the composition of soil?
A) Soil is primarily mineral matter (approximately 72%), but also consists of organic matter (10%), and water (18%).
B) Soil consists of approximately 45% organic matter, 50% mineral matter, and 5% water and/or air.
C) Soil is composed of about 45% mineral matter, 5% organic matter, and 50% pore space containing air and water.
D) Soil includes pebbles, gravel, cobbles, and a varying combination of sands, silts, and clays.
Q:
The branch of soil science that studies soil as a medium for sustaining the growth of higher plants is known as
A) pedology.
B) edaphology.
C) geology.
D) geomorphology.
Q:
The branch of soil science that deals with the origin, classification, distribution, and description of soils is known as
A) pedology.
B) edaphology.
C) geology.
D) geomorphology.
Q:
Which of the following best describes soil?
A) Soil is composed of solely mineral fragments less than 2 mm in size.
B) Soil lacks biological material.
C) Soil is a renewable resource.
D) Soil is a dynamic natural material composed of water, air, mineral fragments, and organic matter.
Q:
Which of the following is incorrect relative to the PLeistocene Epoch?
A) It began 1.65 million years ago.
B) In some areas the ice sheets were more than 2 km (1.2 mi) thick.
C) The ice sheets disappeared approximately 7,000 years ago.
D) It represents a single, continuous cold spell.
Q:
Which of the following is not correct regarding the Pleistocene?
A) Sea levels were 100 m (330 ft.) higher than today.
B) At its height almost a third of Earth was covered with ice.
C) It began 1.65 mya and had at least 18 glacial/interglacial cycles.
D) The Ohio and Missouri River systems marked the southern terminus of continuous ice at its greatest extent.
Q:
Which of the following is not an adaptation to living in periglacial regions?
A) buildings placed directly on frozen, hard surfaces
B) enclosed water and sewage lines
C) raised oil pipelines above the frozen ground
D) careful maintenance of rail tracks and roadbeds in the summer
Q:
Solifluction is most similar to which mass movement process?
A) slump
B) mudflow
C) creep
D) fall
Q:
The expansion and contraction of frost action results in the movement of soil particles, stones, and small boulders into distinct shapes know as
A) gelifluction.
B) patterned ground.
C) taliks.
D) solifluction.
Q:
Vertical and horizontal movement caused by the expansion of freezing water are called
A) frost heaving and frost thrusting, respectively.
B) frost thrusting and frost heaving, respectively.
C) frost heaving.
D) frost thrusting.
Q:
Frozen subsurface water in regions of permafrost is called
A) talik.
B) the active layer.
C) ground ice.
D) periglacial water.
Q:
Unfrozen ground in a region of discontinuous permafrost is known as
A) nunatak.
B) talik.
C) cryotic zone.
D) patterned ground.
Q:
The zone of seasonally frozen ground that exists between the subsurface permafrost layer and the ground surface is called the
A) gelifluction.
B) discontinuous region.
C) active layer.
D) talik.
Q:
Which of the following is correct regarding permafrost?
A) It develops where soil or rock temperatures are below freezing for at least two years.
B) It primarily occurs in areas covered with glaciers.
C) The surface layer of permafrost never thaws, even in the warm season.
D) It tends to occur at lower elevations in the midlatitudes than in the high latitudes.
Q:
Periglacial environments are likely to occur in which of the following climate types?
A) tundra
B) mesothermal
C) humid continental
D) desert
Q:
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A) Periglacial regions occupy about 30% of the Earth's land surface.
B) Periglacial environments occur at high latitudes and high elevations.
C) There are no permafrosts regions in Alaska due to its maritime subarctic climate.
D) Permafrost develops in areas where soil, sediment, or rock temperatures remain below 0C (32F) for at least two years.
Q:
The term periglacial refers to
A) areas that are on top of a glacier.
B) regions that are too warm for ground ice.
C) cold climate processes along the margins of glaciers.
D) process and effects that existed during the last ice age.
Q:
a steep-sided glaciofluvial landform that occur as the result of blocks of ice calving from the retreating glacier and subsequent accumulation of till around the melting ice block is known as a(n)
A) drumlin.
B) kame.
C) esker.
D) kettle.
Q:
A small hill, knob, or mound of glaciofluvial sorted sand and gravel that forms on the surface of a glacier and is later left on the left surface after the glacier retreats is a(n)
A) drumlin.
B) kame.
C) esker.
D) kettle.
Q:
A long, narrow, sinuous ridge of stratified sand and gravel located in a till plain is known as a(n)
A) drumlin.
B) kame.
C) esker.
D) kettle.
Q:
The area of sediment deposit by by glaciofluvial action beyond the glacial terminus is known as the
A) till plain.
B) terminal moraine.
C) outwash plain.
D) end moraine.
Q:
Sorted sediment deposited by glaciofluvial action are called
A) glacial erratics.
B) stratified drift.
C) till.
D) moraines.
Q:
Elongated hills, often in the shape of an inverted spoon, streamlined in the direction of glacial movement are called
A) eskers.
B) kettles.
C) drumlins.
D) horns.
Q:
The present of till indicates
A) deposition by water.
B) deposition by a glacier.
C) deposition by wind.
D) deposition of unknown origin (wind, water, or glacial).
Q:
A deposition of till that forms behind a terminal moraine as the glacier retreats and is generally spread widely across the ground surface is called a(n)
A) outwash plain.
B) till plain.
C) drumlin swarm.
D) lateral moraine.
Q:
Eroded debris dropped at the glacier's farthest extent is called ________ moraine.
A) ground
B) terminal
C) medial
D) lateral
Q:
If two glaciers with lengthy ridges of till along each side of the glacier merge, a ________ moraine may form.
A) ground
B) terminal
C) medial
D) lateral