Q&A Hero

Q: How did the Greeks estimate the size of the earth? A) They didn't; everyone thought the world was flat until Columbus' time. B) They measured the angle of the sun above the horizon at midday in two places with different latitude and used the angle to estimate the circumference of the earth. C) They used the height of sailing ships as they sailed over the horizon to estimate curvature of the earth, which allowed estimation of the size of the earth. D) They measured the altitude of mountains in Greece, then used the distance they were lost from sight to estimate the curvature of the earth, which allowed estimation of the size of the earth.

Q: In the Ptolemaic (Greek) model of the universe, the stars are attached to the ________. A) celestial sphere B) zodiac C) plane of the ecliptic D) deferent E) stadia

Q: Why do the planets "drift" east relative to the stars and then move west for periods of time? A) They are moving in separate orbits around the sun as it goes around the earth, producing the periodic backtracking. B) They are moving in large elliptical orbits, so when observed from Earth, their motion changes depending on whether they are near or far from the sun at a given time. C) They are moving in the same rotation sense as the earth around the sun, but as the earth moves faster (or slower, depending on the planet) the motion appears to be backwards. D) They don't move, they stay fixed relative to the stars.

Q: The apparent westward "drift" of the planets compared to the background stars is called ________. A) Ptolemaic motion B) occultation C) precession D) retrograde motion

Q: In the Ptolemaic (Greek) model of the universe, the ________. A) earth was flat B) earth was in the center of the universe C) Sun was in the center of the solar system D) earth rotated on its axis to produce night and day

Q: Why were planets called "wanderers" by early Astronomers? A) They move in random paths across the sky due to their complex orbits around the Sun. B) They move relative to the stars. C) They move relative to the moon because of their orbits around the earth. D) They move relative to the North Star, but not other stars.

Q: According to the Ptolemaic (Greek) model of the universe, how many "heavenly" bodies could be observed wandering along the background of stars? A) one B) two C) five D) seven

Q: The diagram below illustrates the relationship of the Moon and the Earth during a lunar eclipse. Based on the illustration, would you expect lunar eclipses to occur more or less frequently than solar eclipses? Also, which type of eclipse would be seen by a larger portion of the Earth (and therefore potentially more people)?

Q: Use Figure 21.26 below to help explain the difference between the sidereal and synodic month.

Q: Discuss the phases of the moon and how they relate to the motions of the Earth and Moon. Also, how are eclipses of the Moon and Sun related to these motions?

Q: Briefly discuss the various motions of Earth. What motion is often mistakenly credited for causing seasons here on Earth? How are these motions related (if at all) to the modern calendar that we use today?

Q: Compare and contrast the Ptolemaic System with the Copernican System. Are there any similarities? What are the key differences? How did the prevailing ideas or perspectives of society affect each of these explanations?

Q: If the earth were the center of the universe and the moon, planets, and sun all moved around the earth, logic would say that all of these celestial objects should move in the same direction across the sky, and relative to the celestial background. The sun and moon both follow this pattern, but the other planets have periods of retrograde motion. How did the Ptolemaic model explain retrograde motion and how is it more easily explained by the heliocentric model.

Q: A very slow motion of Earth's axis that requires 26,000 years to complete is called ________.

Q: When Earth is farthest from the Sun, its location is referred to as the ________ position.

Q: When Earth is closest to the Sun, its location is referred to as the ________ position.

Q: The planets, Moon, and the Sun lie along nearly the same plane and therefore move along the same region of the sky that is called the ________.

Q: The two primary motions of the Earth are ________ and ________.

Q: When the Sun crosses the celestial equator, and day and night are of equal length around the globe, it is the time of the ________.

Q: The angular distance north or south of the celestial equator is called ________.

Q: Patterns or configurations of stars named in honor of mythological characters are called ________.

Q: The belt of constellations through which all the planets move is called the ________.

Q: One of the discoveries that led to the modern view of the solar system was that the orbits of the planets are not circular but ________.

Q: Which astronomer developed the three laws of planetary motion?

Q: The planets stay in orbit around the Sun because of a balance between ________ and ________.

Q: The average distance from Earth to the Sun is called the ________ unit.

Q: The first modern astronomer to propose a Sun-centered universe was ________.

Q: The apparent shift in the position of a nearby star when viewed from extreme points in Earth's orbit six months apart is called ________.

Q: How are carbon dioxide and other trace gases thought to be potentially related to global warming? Are the levels of these gases in our atmosphere increasing or decreasing and why are levels changing? Finally, what are some of the observed climatic trends and possible consequences associated with global warming?

Q: Why is climate change a political issue in the United States?

Q: Observe the desert and steppe climates on Figure 20.8 below. How are these climates distributed relative to latitude? What is the relationship of dry climates to global circulation discussed in chapter 18?

Q: Climatic zones are often based on different types of vegetation that result from the prevailing climatic conditions. Considering such zones, what are some of the potential problems when using fossil plant assemblages to interpret ancient climates? What are some of the factors (geological or otherwise) that would influence your conclusions?

Q: If you could modify or replace the Kppen classification system what information would you incorporate that is not currently part of the system?

Q: The most studied and well-documented urban climatic effect is the ________.

Q: Compared to nearby places at lower elevations, sites with ________ climates are cooler and usually wetter.

Q: The two types of polar climates are the ________ climate (ET) and the ________ climate (EF).

Q: The ________ climate is also referred to as a Mediterranean climate.

Q: Which climate is situated on the western (windward) side of continents, from about 40 to 65 degrees north and south latitude?

Q: Extending from Norway to the Pacific coast of Russia is a great expanse of ________ climate, often referred to as the taiga climate.

Q: Wintertime precipitation in ________ and ________ climates is chiefly associated with the passage of fronts connected with traveling middle-latitude cyclones.

Q: The two types of dry climates are ________, or desert, and ________, or steppe.

Q: Earth's low-latitude deserts and steppes coincide with the ________ pressure belts.

Q: What are the three variables used in the Kppen system to establish the boundary between dry and humid climates?

Q: Af and Am climates form a discontinuous belt astride the ________.

Q: Tropical wet and dry climates are located ________ of the wet tropics and ________ of the tropical deserts.

Q: ________ climate is summerless with the average temperature of the warmest month below 10oC.

Q: The boundaries of the Kppen climates are largely based on the limits of certain ________ associations.

Q: ________ climates are those in which the average temperature of the coldest month is below -3oC and the warmest monthly mean exceeds 10oC.

Q: The Kppen climate classification system uses mean monthly and annual values of ________ and ________.

Q: The two most important elements in a climatic description are ________ and ________.

Q: Kppen believed that the distribution of natural ________ was an excellent expression of the totality of climate.

Q: Winterless climates with all months having a mean temperature above 18C are called ________ climates.

Q: The five parts of the climate system are the ________, ________, ________, ________, and ________.

Q: As a result of global warming, a significant melting of glaciers is expected during the next century.

Q: Positive feedback mechanisms produce results that are opposite of the initial change and tend to offset it.

Q: The tundra climate is a treeless climate found almost exclusively in the Southern Hemisphere.

Q: Annual temperature ranges are high throughout a humid continental climate.

Q: The southeastern United States is a good example of a humid subtropical climate.

Q: The largest stretch of continuous forests on Earth coincides with a subarctic climate.

Q: The dry-summer subtropical climate is the only humid climate that has a strong winter rainfall maximum.

Q: A semiarid climate represents a transition zone that surrounds a desert and separates it from the bordering humid climates.

Q: Earth's middle-latitude deserts exist principally because of their positions in the deep interiors of large landmasses, far removed from the oceans.

Q: The windward sides of mountains are often wet.

Q: A savanna is a tropical grassland with scattered drought-tolerant trees.

Q: The two main types of A climates are wet tropical climates and tropical wet and dry climates.

Q: Kppen believed that the distribution of solar radiation was an excellent expression of the totality of climate.

Q: Altitude and precipitation are the two most important elements in a climatic description.

Q: Four of the major climate groups are defined on the basis of temperature characteristics.

Q: The hydrosphere refers to the snow and ice that exist at Earth's surface.

Q: The climate system involves only Earth's atmosphere and solid surface.

Q: Examine the words and/or phrases for each question below and determine the relationship among the majority of words/phrases. Choose the option which does not fit the pattern. carbon dioxide ozone nitrous oxide methane

Q: Examine the words and/or phrases for each question below and determine the relationship among the majority of words/phrases. Choose the option which does not fit the pattern. desert steppe subarctic rain shadow

Q: Examine the words and/or phrases for each question below and determine the relationship among the majority of words/phrases. Choose the option which does not fit the pattern. lithosphere atmosphere hydrosphere biosphere

Q: Global warming appears to be thawing the permafrost as indicated by ________. A) disappearing lakes in the Arctic B) houses sinking into the ground in Alaska C) increased surface waters in the Arctic D) all of the above

Q: Climate models indicate that ________ is(are) one of the strongest indications of global warming. A) retreating glaciers in Alaska B) loss of sea ice in the Arctic C) the hole in the ozone in Australia D) melting of Antarctica E) El Nio

Q: Sea level change is ________. A) steady B) accelerating C) decelerating D) not occurring

Q: Sea level change will have its greatest impact on coastal areas that are ________. A) active continental margins like California and Chile B) volcanic islands like Hawaii C) subduction zones like Japan D) passive continental margins like the eastern U.S. and southern India E) all of the above

Q: Records indicate that sea level has ________ since 1870. A) risen by 2.5 meters B) risen by 25 centimeters C) not changed D) decreased by 25 centimeters E) decreased by 2.5 meters

Q: The magnitude of a temperature increase due to greenhouse warming will probably be smallest in the ________. A) polar regions B) lower middle-latitudes C) higher middle-latitudes D) subtropics E) tropics

Q: Aerosols are ________ in terms of global change due to greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. A) a positive feedback mechanism B) a negative feedback mechanism C) neither a positive nor a negative feedback mechanism D) an absorber E) a reflector