Q&A Hero

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The MIRR and NPV decision criteria can never conflict. b. The IRR method can never be subject to the multiple IRR problem, while the MIRR method can be. c. One reason some people prefer the MIRR to the regular IRR is that the MIRR is based on a generally more reasonable reinvestment rate assumption. d. The higher the WACC, the shorter the discounted payback period. e. The MIRR method assumes that cash flows are reinvested at the crossover rate.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. If a project with normal cash flows has an IRR greater than the WACC, the project must also have a positive NPV. b. If Project As IRR exceeds Project Bs, then A must have the higher NPV. c. A projects MIRR can never exceed its IRR. d. If a project with normal cash flows has an IRR less than the WACC, the project must have a positive NPV. e. If the NPV is negative, the IRR must also be negative.

Q: Four of the following statements are truly disadvantages of the regular payback method, but one is not a disadvantage of this method. Which one is NOT a disadvantage of the payback method? a. Lacks an objective, market-determined benchmark for making decisions. b. Ignores cash flows beyond the payback period. c. Does not directly account for the time value of money. d. Does not provide any indication regarding a projects liquidity or risk. e. Does not take account of differences in size among projects.

Q: Suppose a firm relies exclusively on the payback method when making capital budgeting decisions, and it sets a 4-year payback regardless of economic conditions. Other things held constant, which of the following statements is most likely to be true? a. It will accept too many short-term projects and reject too many long-term projects (as judged by the NPV). b. It will accept too many long-term projects and reject too many short-term projects (as judged by the NPV). c. The firm will accept too many projects in all economic states because a 4-year payback is too low. d. The firm will accept too few projects in all economic states because a 4-year payback is too high. e. If the 4-year payback results in accepting just the right set of projects under average economic conditions, then this payback will result in too few long-term projects when the economy is weak.

Q: Projects C and D are mutually exclusive and have normal cash flows. Project C has a higher NPV if the WACC is less than 12%, whereas Project D has a higher NPV if the WACC exceeds 12%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Project D probably has a higher IRR. b. Project D is probably larger in scale than Project C. c. Project C probably has a faster payback. d. Project C probably has a higher IRR. e. The crossover rate between the two projects is below 12%.

Q: Projects S and L both have an initial cost of $10,000, followed by a series of positive cash inflows. Project Ss undiscounted net cash flows total $20,000, while Ls total undiscounted flows are $30,000. At a WACC of 10%, the two projects have identical NPVs. Which projects NPV is more sensitive to changes in the WACC? a. Project S. b. Project L. c. Both projects are equally sensitive to changes in the WACC since their NPVs are equal at all costs of capital. d. Neither project is sensitive to changes in the discount rate, since both have NPV profiles that are horizontal. e. The solution cannot be determined because the problem gives us no information that can be used to determine the projects relative IRRs.

Q: u200bProjects A and B have identical expected lives and identical initial cash outflows (costs). However, most of one project's cash flows come in the early years, while most of the other project's cash flows occur in the later years. The two NPV profiles are given below: u200b u200b Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. u200bMore of Project A's cash flows occur in the later years. b. u200bMore of Project B's cash flows occur in the later years. c. u200bWe must have information on the cost of capital in order to determine which project has the larger early cash flows. d. u200bThe NPV profile graph is inconsistent with the statement made in the problem. e. The crossover rate, i.e., the rate at which Projects A and B have the same NPV, is greater than either project's IRR.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The NPV method was once the favorite of academics and business executives, but today most authorities regard the MIRR as being the best indicator of a projects profitability. b. If the cost of capital declines, this lowers a projects NPV. c. The NPV method is regarded by most academics as being the best indicator of a projects profitability, hence most academics recommend that firms use only this one method and disregard other methods. d. A projects NPV depends on the total amount of cash flows the project produces, but because the cash flows are discounted at the WACC, it does not matter if the cash flows occur early or late in the projects life. e. The NPV and IRR methods may give different recommendations regarding which of two mutually exclusive projects should be accepted, but they always give the same recommendation regarding the acceptability of a normal, independent project.

Q: Assume that the economy is enjoying a strong boom, and as a result interest rates and money costs generally are relatively high. The WACC for two mutually exclusive projects that are being considered is 12%. Project S has an IRR of 20% while Project L's IRR is 15%. The projects have the same NPV at the 12% current WACC. However, you believe that the economy will soon fall into a mild recession, and money costs and thus your WACC will soon decline. You also think that the projects will not be funded until the WACC has decreased, and their cash flows will not be affected by the change in economic conditions. Under these conditions, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. You should reject both projects because they will both have negative NPVs under the new conditions. b. You should delay a decision until you have more information on the projects, even if this means that a competitor might come in and capture this market. c. You should recommend Project L, because at the new WACC it will have the higher NPV. d. You should recommend Project S, because at the new WACC it will have the higher NPV. e. You should recommend Project L because it will have both a higher IRR and a higher NPV under the new conditions.

Q: Assume that the economy is in a mild recession, and as a result interest rates and money costs generally are relatively low. The WACC for two mutually exclusive projects that are being considered is 8%. Project S has an IRR of 20% while Project L's IRR is 15%. The projects have the same NPV at the 8% current WACC. However, you believe that the economy is about to recover, and money costs and thus your WACC will also increase. You also think that the projects will not be funded until the WACC has increased, and their cash flows will not be affected by the change in economic conditions. Under these conditions, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. You should reject both projects because they will both have negative NPVs under the new conditions. b. You should delay a decision until you have more information on the projects, even if this means that a competitor might come in and capture this market. c. You should recommend Project L, because at the new WACC it will have the higher NPV. d. You should recommend Project S, because at the new WACC it will have the higher NPV. e. You should recommend Project L because it will have the higher IRR at the new WACC.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. If Project A has a higher IRR than Project B, then Project A must have the lower NPV. b. If Project A has a higher IRR than Project B, then Project A must also have a higher NPV. c. The IRR calculation implicitly assumes that all cash flows are reinvested at the WACC. d. The IRR calculation implicitly assumes that cash flows are withdrawn from the business rather than being reinvested in the business. e. If a project has normal cash flows and its IRR exceeds its WACC, then the projects NPV must be positive.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The NPV method assumes that cash flows will be reinvested at the WACC, while the IRR method assumes reinvestment at the IRR. b. The NPV method assumes that cash flows will be reinvested at the risk-free rate, while the IRR method assumes reinvestment at the IRR. c. The NPV method assumes that cash flows will be reinvested at the WACC, while the IRR method assumes reinvestment at the risk-free rate. d. The NPV method does not consider all relevant cash flows, particularly cash flows beyond the payback period. e. The IRR method does not consider all relevant cash flows, particularly cash flows beyond the payback period.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. For a project to have more than one IRR, then both IRRs must be greater than the WACC. b. If two projects are mutually exclusive, then they are likely to have multiple IRRs. c. If a project is independent, then it cannot have multiple IRRs. d. Multiple IRRs can occur only if the signs of the cash flows change more than once. e. If a project has two IRRs, then the smaller one is the one that is most relevant, and it should be accepted and relied upon.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. A projects NPV is generally found by compounding the cash inflows at the WACC to find the terminal value (TV), then discounting the TV at the IRR to find its PV. b. The higher the WACC used to calculate the NPV, the lower the calculated NPV will be. c. If a projects NPV is greater than zero, then its IRR must be less than the WACC. d. If a projects NPV is greater than zero, then its IRR must be less than zero. e. The NPVs of relatively risky projects should be found using relatively low WACCs.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. An NPV profile graph shows how a projects payback varies as the cost of capital changes. b. The NPV profile graph for a normal project will generally have a positive (upward) slope as the life of the project increases. c. An NPV profile graph is designed to give decision makers an idea about how a projects risk varies with its life. d. An NPV profile graph is designed to give decision makers an idea about how a projects contribution to the firms value varies with the cost of capital. e. We cannot draw a projects NPV profile unless we know the appropriate WACC for use in evaluating the projects NPV.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The internal rate of return method (IRR) is generally regarded by academics as being the best single method for evaluating capital budgeting projects. b. The payback method is generally regarded by academics as being the best single method for evaluating capital budgeting projects. c. The discounted payback method is generally regarded by academics as being the best single method for evaluating capital budgeting projects. d. The net present value method (NPV) is generally regarded by academics as being the best single method for evaluating capital budgeting projects. e. The modified internal rate of return method (MIRR) is generally regarded by academics as being the best single method for evaluating capital budgeting projects.

Q: Assume a project has normal cash flows. All else equal, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. A projects IRR increases as the WACC declines. b. A projects NPV increases as the WACC declines. c. A projects MIRR is unaffected by changes in the WACC. d. A projects regular payback increases as the WACC declines. e. A projects discounted payback increases as the WACC declines.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The shorter a projects payback period, the less desirable the project is normally considered to be by this criterion. b. One drawback of the payback criterion is that this method does not take account of cash flows beyond the payback period. c. If a projects payback is positive, then the project should be accepted because it must have a positive NPV. d. The regular payback ignores cash flows beyond the payback period, but the discounted payback method overcomes this problem. e. One drawback of the discounted payback is that this method does not consider the time value of money, while the regular payback overcomes this drawback.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. The longer a projects payback period, the more desirable the project is normally considered to be by this criterion. b. One drawback of the payback criterion for evaluating projects is that this method does not properly account for the time value of money. c. If a projects payback is positive, then the project should be rejected because it must have a negative NPV. d. The regular payback ignores cash flows beyond the payback period, but the discounted payback method overcomes this problem. e. If a company uses the same payback requirement to evaluate all projects, say it requires a payback of 4 years or less, then the company will tend to reject projects with relatively short lives and accept long-lived projects, and this will cause its risk to increase over time.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The regular payback method recognizes all cash flows over a projects life. b. The discounted payback method recognizes all cash flows over a projects life, and it also adjusts these cash flows to account for the time value of money. c. The regular payback method was, years ago, widely used, but virtually no companies even calculate the payback today. d. The regular payback is useful as an indicator of a projects liquidity because it gives managers an idea of how long it will take to recover the funds invested in a project. e. The regular payback does not consider cash flows beyond the payback year, but the discounted payback overcomes this defect.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Projects with normal cash flows can have only one real IRR. b. Projects with normal cash flows can have two or more real IRRs. c. Projects with normal cash flows must have two changes in the sign of the cash flows, e.g., from negative to positive to negative. If there are more than two sign changes, then the cash flow stream is nonnormal. d. The multiple IRR problem can arise if a projects cash flows are normal. e. Projects with nonnormal cash flows are almost never encountered in the real world.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. If a project has normal cash flows, then its IRR must be positive. b. If a project has normal cash flows, then its MIRR must be positive. c. If a project has normal cash flows, then it will have exactly two real IRRs. d. The definition of normal cash flows is that the cash flow stream has one or more negative cash flows followed by a stream of positive cash flows and then one negative cash flow at the end of the projects life. e. If a project has normal cash flows, then it can have only one real IRR, whereas a project with "nonnormal" cash flows might have more than one real IRR.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. A projects regular IRR is found by compounding the initial cost at the WACC to find the terminal value (TV), then discounting the TV at the WACC. b. A projects regular IRR is found by compounding the cash inflows at the WACC to find the present value (PV), then discounting the TV to find the IRR. c. If a projects IRR is smaller than the WACC, then its NPV will be positive. d. A projects IRR is the discount rate that causes the PV of the inflows to equal the projects cost. e. If a projects IRR is positive, then its NPV must also be positive.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. A projects regular IRR is found by compounding the cash inflows at the WACC to find the terminal value (TV), then discounting this TV at the WACC. b. A projects regular IRR is found by discounting the cash inflows at the WACC to find the present value (PV), then compounding this PV to find the IRR. c. If a projects IRR is greater than the WACC, then its NPV must be negative. d. To find a projects IRR, we must solve for the discount rate that causes the PV of the inflows to equal the PV of the projects costs. e. To find a projects IRR, we must find a discount rate that is equal to the WACC.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR does not take account of cash flows over a projects full life. b. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR does not take account of the time value of money. c. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR does not take account of the cost of capital. d. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR values a dollar received today the same as a dollar that will not be received until sometime in the future. e. One defect of the IRR method versus the NPV is that the IRR does not take proper account of differences in the sizes of projects.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. One defect of the IRR method is that it does not take account of cash flows over a projects full life. b. One defect of the IRR method is that it does not take account of the time value of money. c. One defect of the IRR method is that it does not take account of the cost of capital. d. One defect of the IRR method is that it values a dollar received today the same as a dollar that will not be received until sometime in the future. e. One defect of the IRR method is that it assumes that the cash flows to be received from a project can be reinvested at the IRR itself, and that assumption is often not valid.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the project being considered has normal cash flows, with one outflow followed by a series of inflows. a. A projects NPV is found by compounding the cash inflows at the IRR to find the terminal value (TV), then discounting the TV at the WACC. b. The lower the WACC used to calculate it, the lower the calculated NPV will be. c. If a projects NPV is less than zero, then its IRR must be less than the WACC. d. If a projects NPV is greater than zero, then its IRR must be less than zero. e. The NPV of a relatively low-risk project should be found using a relatively high WACC.

Q: If the IRR of normal Project X is greater than the IRR of mutually exclusive (and also normal) Project Y, we can conclude that the firm should always select X rather than Y if X has NPV > 0. a. True b. False

Q: Normal Projects S and L have the same NPV when the discount rate is zero. However, Project S's cash flows come in faster than those of L. Therefore, we know that at any discount rate greater than zero, L will have the higher NPV. a. True b. False

Q: The IRR of normal Project X is greater than the IRR of normal Project Y, and both IRRs are greater than zero. Also, the NPV of X is greater than the NPV of Y at the cost of capital. If the two projects are mutually exclusive, Project X should definitely be selected, and the investment made, provided we have confidence in the data. Put another way, it is impossible to draw NPV profiles that would suggest not accepting Project X. a. True b. False

Q: An increase in the firm's WACC will decrease projects' NPVs, which could change the accept/reject decision for any potential project. However, such a change would have no impact on projects' IRRs. Therefore, the accept/reject decision under the IRR method is independent of the cost of capital. a. True b. False

Q: Small businesses make less use of DCF capital budgeting techniques than large businesses. This may reflect a lack of knowledge on the part of small firms' managers, but it may also reflect a rational conclusion that the costs of using DCF analysis outweigh the benefits of these methods for very small firms. a. True b. False

Q: If you were evaluating two mutually exclusive projects for a firm with a zero cost of capital, the payback method and NPV method would always lead to the same decision on which project to undertake. a. True b. False

Q: In theory, capital budgeting decisions should depend solely on forecasted cash flows and the opportunity cost of capital. The decision criterion should not be affected by managers' tastes, choice of accounting method, or the profitability of other independent projects. a. True b. False

Q: The regular payback method is deficient in that it does not take account of cash flows beyond the payback period. The discounted payback method corrects this fault. a. True b. False

Q: Project S has a pattern of high cash flows in its early life, while Project L has a longer life, with large cash flows late in its life. Neither has negative cash flows after Year 0, and at the current cost of capital, the two projects have identical NPVs. Now suppose interest rates and money costs decline. Other things held constant, this change will cause L to become preferred to S. a. True b. False

Q: A conflict will exist between the NPV and IRR methods, when used to evaluate two equally risky but mutually exclusive projects, if the projects' cost of capital is less than the rate at which the projects' NPV profiles cross. a. True b. False

Q: The NPV and IRR methods, when used to evaluate two equally risky but mutually exclusive projects, will lead to different accept/reject decisions and thus capital budgets if the cost of capital at which the projects' NPV profiles cross is greater than the crossover rate. a. True b. False

Q: The NPV and IRR methods, when used to evaluate two independent and equally risky projects, will lead to different accept/reject decisions and thus capital budgets if the projects' IRRs are greater than their costs of capital. a. True b. False

Q: The primary reason that the NPV method is conceptually superior to the IRR method for evaluating mutually exclusive investments is that multiple IRRs may exist, and when that happens, we don't know which IRR is relevant. a. True b. False

Q: When considering two mutually exclusive projects, the firm should always select the project whose internal rate of return is the highest, provided the projects have the same initial cost. This statement is true regardless of whether the projects can be repeated or not. a. True b. False

Q: One advantage of the payback method for evaluating potential investments is that it provides information about a project's liquidity and risk. a. True b. False

Q: When evaluating mutually exclusive projects, the modified IRR (MIRR) always leads to the same capital budgeting decisions as the NPV method, regardless of the relative lives or sizes of the projects being evaluated. a. True b. False

Q: Both the regular and the modified IRR (MIRR) methods have wide appeal to professors, but most business executives prefer the NPV method to either of the IRR methods. a. True b. False

Q: For a project with one initial cash outflow followed by a series of positive cash inflows, the modified IRR (MIRR) method involves compounding the cash inflows out to the end of the project's life, summing those compounded cash flows to form a terminal value (TV), and then finding the discount rate that causes the PV of the TV to equal the project's cost. a. True b. False

Q: The NPV method's assumption that cash inflows are reinvested at the cost of capital is generally more reasonable than the IRR's assumption that cash flows are reinvested at the IRR. This is an important reason why the NPV method is generally preferred over the IRR method. a. True b. False

Q: The IRR method is based on the assumption that projects' cash flows are reinvested at the project's risk-adjusted cost of capital. a. True b. False

Q: The NPV method is based on the assumption that projects' cash flows are reinvested at the project's risk-adjusted cost of capital. a. True b. False

Q: The phenomenon called "multiple internal rates of return" arises when two or more mutually exclusive projects that have different lives are being compared. a. True b. False

Q: Under certain conditions, a project may have more than one IRR. One such condition is when, in addition to the initial investment at time = 0, a negative cash flow (or cost) occurs at the end of the project's life. a. True b. False

Q: Other things held constant, an increase in the cost of capital will result in a decrease in a project's IRR. a. True b. False

Q: The internal rate of return is that discount rate that equates the present value of the cash outflows (or costs) with the present value of the cash inflows. a. True b. False

Q: Conflicts between two mutually exclusive projects occasionally occur, where the NPV method ranks one project higher but the IRR method puts the other one first. In theory, such conflicts should be resolved in favor of the project with the higher IRR. a. True b. False

Q: Conflicts between two mutually exclusive projects occasionally occur, where the NPV method ranks one project higher but the IRR method puts the other one first. In theory, such conflicts should be resolved in favor of the project with the higher NPV. a. True b. False

Q: A basic rule in capital budgeting is that if a project's NPV exceeds its IRR, then the project should be accepted. a. True b. False

Q: Assuming that their NPVs based on the firm's cost of capital are equal, the NPV of a project whose cash flows accrue relatively rapidly will be more sensitive to changes in the discount rate than the NPV of a project whose cash flows come in later in its life. a. True b. False

Q: Because "present value" refers to the value of cash flows that occur at different points in time, a series of present values of cash flows should not be summed to determine the value of a capital budgeting project. a. True b. False

Q: A firm should never accept a project if its acceptance would lead to an increase in the firm's cost of capital (its WACC). a. True b. False

Q: Schalheim Sisters Inc. has always paid out all of its earnings as dividends, hence the firm has no retained earnings. This same situation is expected to persist in the future. The company uses the CAPM to calculate its cost of equity, its target capital structure consists of common stock, preferred stock, and debt. Which of the following events would REDUCE its WACC? a. The market risk premium declines. b. The flotation costs associated with issuing new common stock increase. c. The companys beta increases. d. Expected inflation increases. e. The flotation costs associated with issuing preferred stock increase.

Q: Bankston Corporation forecasts that if all of its existing financial policies are followed, its proposed capital budget would be so large that it would have to issue new common stock. Since new stock has a higher cost than retained earnings, Bankston would like to avoid issuing new stock. Which of the following actions would REDUCE its need to issue new common stock? a. Increase the dividend payout ratio for the upcoming year. b. Increase the percentage of debt in the target capital structure. c. Increase the proposed capital budget. d. Reduce the amount of short-term bank debt in order to increase the current ratio. e. Reduce the percentage of debt in the target capital structure.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a capital component when calculating the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) for use in capital budgeting? a. Long-term debt. b. Accounts payable. c. Retained earnings. d. Common stock. e. Preferred stock.

Q: If investors' aversion to risk rose, causing the slope of the SML to increase, this would have a greater impact on the required rate of return on equity, rs, than on the interest rate on long-term debt, rd, for most firms. Other things held constant, this would lead to an increase in the use of debt and a decrease in the use of equity. However, other things would not stay constant if firms used a lot more debt, as that would increase the riskiness of both debt and equity and thus limit the shift toward debt. a. True b. False

Q: If expectations for long-term inflation rose, but the slope of the SML remained constant, this would have a greater impact on the required rate of return on equity, rs, than on the interest rate on long-term debt, rd, for most firms. Therefore, the percentage point increase in the cost of equity would be greater than the increase in the interest rate on long-term debt. a. True b. False

Q: Since 70% of the preferred dividends received by a corporation are excluded from taxable income, the component cost of equity for a company that pays half of its earnings out as common dividends and half as preferred dividends should, theoretically, be u200b Cost of equity = rs(0.30)(0.50) + rps(1 - T)(0.70)(0.50). a. True b. False

Q: The lower the firm's tax rate, the lower will be its after-tax cost of debt and also its WACC, other things held constant. a. True b. False

Q: The cost of debt, rd, is normally less than rs, so rd(1 - T) will normally be much less than rs. Therefore, as long as the firm is not completely debt financed, the weighted average cost of capital (WACC) will normally be greater than rd(1 - T). a. True b. False

Q: Firms raise capital at the total corporate level by retaining earnings and by obtaining funds in the capital markets. They then provide funds to their different divisions for investment in capital projects. The divisions may vary in risk, and the projects within the divisions may also vary in risk. Therefore, it is conceptually correct to use different risk-adjusted costs of capital for different capital budgeting projects. a. True b. False

Q: Suppose the debt ratio is 50%, the interest rate on new debt is 8%, the current cost of equity is 16%, and the tax rate is 40%. An increase in the debt ratio to 60% would have to decrease the weighted average cost of capital (WACC). a. True b. False

Q: If the expected dividend growth rate is zero, then the cost of external equity capital raised by issuing new common stock (re) is equal to the cost of equity capital from retaining earnings (rs) divided by one minus the percentage flotation cost required to sell the new stock, (1 - F). If the expected growth rate is not zero, then the cost of external equity must be found using a different formula. a. True b. False

Q: The cost of external equity capital raised by issuing new common stock (re) is defined as follows, in words: "The cost of external equity equals the cost of equity capital from retaining earnings (rs), divided by one minus the percentage flotation cost required to sell the new stock, (1 - F)." a. True b. False

Q: If a firm is privately owned, and its stock is not traded in public markets, then we cannot measure its beta for use in the CAPM model, we cannot observe its stock price for use in the DCF model, and we don't know what the risk premium is for use in the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium method. All this makes it especially difficult to estimate the cost of equity for a private company. a. True b. False

Q: When estimating the cost of equity by use of the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium method, we can generally get a good idea of the interest rate on new long-term debt, but we cannot be sure that the risk premium we add is appropriate. This problem leaves us unsure of the true value of rs. a. True b. False

Q: When estimating the cost of equity by use of the DCF method, the single biggest potential problem is to determine the growth rate that investors use when they estimate a stock's expected future rate of return. This problem leaves us unsure of the true value of rs. a. True b. False

Q: When estimating the cost of equity by use of the CAPM, three potential problems are (1) whether to use long-term or short-term rates for rRF, (2) whether or not the historical beta is the beta that investors use when evaluating the stock, and (3) how to measure the market risk premium, RPM. These problems leave us unsure of the true value of rs. a. True b. False

Q: The text identifies three methods for estimating the cost of common stock from retained earnings: the CAPM method, the DCF method, and the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium method. Since we cannot be sure that the estimate obtained with any of these methods is correct, it is often appropriate to use all three methods, then consider all three estimates, and end up using a judgmental estimate when calculating the WACC. a. True b. False

Q: The text identifies three methods for estimating the cost of common stock from retained earnings: the CAPM method, the DCF method, and the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium method. However, only the CAPM method always provides an accurate and reliable estimate. a. True b. False

Q: The text identifies three methods for estimating the cost of common stock from retained earnings: the CAPM method, the DCF method, and the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium method. However, only the DCF method is widely used in practice. a. True b. False

Q: The reason why retained earnings have a cost equal to rs is because investors think they can (i.e., expect to) earn rs on investments with the same risk as the firm's common stock, and if the firm does not think that it can earn rs on the earnings that it retains, it should pay those earnings out to its investors. Thus, the cost of retained earnings is based on the opportunity cost principle. a. True b. False

Q: If a firm's marginal tax rate is increased, this would, other things held constant, lower the cost of debt used to calculate its WACC. a. True b. False

Q: In general, firms should use their weighted average cost of capital (WACC) to evaluate capital budgeting projects because most projects are funded with general corporate funds, which come from a variety of sources. However, if the firm plans to use only debt or only equity to fund a particular project, it should use the after-tax cost of that specific type of capital to evaluate that project. a. True b. False