Q&A Hero

Q: The higher the firm's flotation cost for new common equity, the more likely the firm is to use preferred stock, which has no flotation cost, and retained earnings, whose cost is the average return on the assets that are acquired. a. True b. False

Q: For capital budgeting and cost of capital purposes, the firm should assume that each dollar of capital is obtained in accordance with its target capital structure, which for many firms means partly as debt, partly as preferred stock, and partly common equity. a. True b. False

Q: The firm's cost of external equity raised by issuing new stock is the same as the required rate of return on the firm's outstanding common stock. a. True b. False

Q: The cost of equity raised by retaining earnings can be less than, equal to, or greater than the cost of external equity raised by selling new issues of common stock, depending on tax rates, flotation costs, the attitude of investors, and other factors. a. True b. False

Q: Funds acquired by the firm through retaining earnings have no cost because there are no dividend or interest payments associated with them, and no flotation costs are required to raise them, but capital raised by selling new stock or bonds does have a cost. a. True b. False

Q: For capital budgeting and cost of capital purposes, the firm should always consider retained earnings as the first source of capital (i.e., use these funds first) because retained earnings have no cost to the firm. a. True b. False

Q: The cost of common equity obtained by retaining earnings is the rate of return the marginal stockholder requires on the firm's common stock. a. True b. False

Q: The cost of perpetual preferred stock is found as the preferred's annual dividend divided by the market price of the preferred stock. No adjustment is needed for taxes because preferred dividends, unlike interest on debt, are not deductible by the issuing firm. a. True b. False

Q: The cost of preferred stock to a firm must be adjusted to an after-tax figure because 50% of dividends received by a corporation may be excluded from the receiving corporation's taxable income. a. True b. False

Q: The cost of debt is equal to one minus the marginal tax rate multiplied by the interest rate on new debt. a. True b. False

Q: The cost of debt is equal to one minus the marginal tax rate multiplied by the average coupon rate on all outstanding debt. a. True b. False

Q: The before-tax cost of debt, which is lower than the after-tax cost, is used as the component cost of debt for purposes of developing the firm's WACC. a. True b. False

Q: The component costs of capital are market-determined variables in the sense that they are based on investors' required returns. a. True b. False

Q: Suppose you are the president of a small, publicly-traded corporation. Since you believe that your firm's stock price is temporarily depressed, all additional capital funds required during the current year will be raised using debt. In this case, the appropriate marginal cost of capital for use in capital budgeting during the current year is the after-tax cost of debt. a. True b. False

Q: The cost of capital used in capital budgeting should reflect the average cost of the various sources of investor-supplied funds a firm uses to acquire assets. a. True b. False

Q: "Capital" is sometimes defined as funds supplied to a firm by investors. a. True b. False

Q: Refer to Exhibit 10.1. What is the best estimate of the firm's WACC? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 10.43% b. 10.89% c. 11.46% d. 11.75% e. 12.39%

Q: Refer to Exhibit 10.1. Which of the following is the best estimate for the weight of debt for use in calculating the WACC? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 19.62% b. 20.40% c. 21.22% d. 21.85% e. 22.51%

Q: Refer to Exhibit 10.1. Based on the CAPM, what is the firm's cost of equity? a. 11.41% b. 11.92% c. 12.44% d. 12.82% e. 13.33%

Q: Refer to Exhibit 10.1. What is the best estimate of the after-tax cost of debt? a. 5.23% b. 5.59% c. 7.35% d. 6.17% e. 6.48%

Q: Vang Enterprises, which is debt-free and finances only with equity from retained earnings, is considering 7 equal-sized capital budgeting projects. Its CFO hired you to assist in deciding whether none, some, or all of the projects should be accepted. You have the following information: rRF = 4.50%; RPM = 5.50%; and b = 0.86. The company adds or subtracts a specified percentage to the corporate WACC when it evaluates projects that have above- or below-average risk. Data on the 7 projects are shown below. If these are the only projects under consideration, how large should the capital budget be? Expected Project Risk Risk factor return Cost (millions) 1 Very low -2.00% 7.60% $25 2 Low -1.00% 9.15% $25 3 Average 0.00% 10.10% $25 4 High 1.00% 10.40% $25 5 Very high 2.00% 10.80% $25 6 Very high 2.00% 10.90% $25 7 Very high 2.00% 13.00% $25 u200b a. $150 million b. $175 million c. $75 million d. $100 million e. $125 million

Q: Assume that you are on the financial staff of Vanderheiden Inc., and you have collected the following data: The yield on the companys outstanding bonds is 7.75%, its tax rate is 25%, the next expected dividend is $0.65 a share, the dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of 6.00% a year, the price of the stock is $14.00 per share, the flotation cost for selling new shares is F = 10%, and the target capital structure is 45% debt and 55% common equity. What is the firm's WACC, assuming it must issue new stock to finance its capital budget? a. 9.96% b. 7.98% c. 10.12% d. 8.75% e. 8.23%

Q: Daves Inc. recently hired you as a consultant to estimate the companys WACC. You have obtained the following information. (1) The firm's noncallable bonds mature in 20 years, have an 8.00% annual coupon, a par value of $1,000, and a market price of $1,000.00. (2) The companys tax rate is 25%. (3) The risk-free rate is 4.50%, the market risk premium is 5.50%, and the stocks beta is 1.20. (4) The target capital structure consists of 35% debt and the balance is common equity. The firm uses the CAPM to estimate the cost of equity, and it does not expect to issue any new common stock. What is its WACC? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 8.90% b. 10.32% c. 11.03% d. 6.76% e. 9.32%

Q: Bolster Foods (BF) balance sheet shows a total of $25 million long-term debt with a coupon rate of 8.50%. The yield to maturity on this debt is 8.00%, and the debt has a total current market value of $27 million. The balance sheet also shows that the company has 10 million shares of stock, and the stock has a book value per share of $5.00. The current stock price is $20.00 per share, and stockholders' required rate of return, rs, is 12.25%. The company recently decided that its target capital structure should have 35% debt, with the balance being common equity. The tax rate is 25%. Calculate WACCs based on book, market, and target capital structures, and then find the sum of these three WACCs. Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 38.16% b. 31.08% c. 18.90% d. 12.68% e. 31.73%

Q: Eakins Inc.s common stock currently sells for $50.00 per share, the company expects to earn $2.75 per share during the current year, its expected payout ratio is 70%, and its expected constant growth rate is 6.00%. New stock can be sold to the public at the current price, but a flotation cost of 8% would be incurred. By how much would the cost of new stock exceed the cost of retained earnings? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 0.23% b. 0.33% c. 0.44% d. 0.20% e. 0.40%

Q: The CFO of Lenox Industries hired you as a consultant to help estimate its cost of capital. You have obtained the following data: (1) rd = yield on the firms bonds = 7.00% and the risk premium over its own debt cost = 4.00%. (2) rRF = 5.00%, RPM = 6.00%, and b = 1.65. (3) D1 = $1.20, P0 = $35.00, and g = 8.00% (constant). You were asked to estimate the cost of equity based on the three most commonly used methods and then to indicate the difference between the highest and lowest of these estimates. What is that difference? a. 3.90% b. 4.29% c. 3.74% d. 4.60% e. 4.21%

Q: Sapp Truckings balance sheet shows a total of noncallable $45 million long-term debt with a coupon rate of 7.00% and a yield to maturity of 6.00%. This debt currently has a market value of $50 million. The balance sheet also shows that the company has 10 million shares of common stock, and the book value of the common equity (common stock plus retained earnings) is $65 million. The current stock price is $24.50 per share; stockholders' required return, rs, is 14.00%; and the firm's tax rate is 25%. The CFO thinks the WACC should be based on market value weights, but the president thinks book weights are more appropriate. What is the difference between these two WACCs? a. 2.62% b. 2.28% c. 1.87% d. 2.19% e. 3.11%

Q: S. Bouchard and Company hired you as a consultant to help estimate its cost of capital. You have obtained the following data: D0 = $0.85; P0 = $22.00; and g = 6.00% (constant). The CEO thinks, however, that the stock price is temporarily depressed, and that it will soon rise to $37.00. Based on the DCF approach, by how much would the cost of equity from retained earnings change if the stock price changes as the CEO expects? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 1.66% b. 1.39% c. 1.79% d. 1.73% e. 1.81%

Q: Keys Printing plans to issue a $1,000 par value, 20-year noncallable bond with a 7.00% annual coupon, paid semiannually. The company's marginal tax rate is 40.00%, but Congress is considering a change in the corporate tax rate to 25.00%. By how much would the component cost of debt used to calculate the WACC change if the new tax rate was adopted? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 0.92% b. 1.30% c. 1.26% d. 0.93% e. 1.05%

Q: You were hired as a consultant to Quigley Company, whose target capital structure is 35% debt, 10% preferred, and 55% common equity. The interest rate on new debt is 6.50%, the yield on the preferred is 6.00%, the cost of retained earnings is 10.50%, and the tax rate is 25%. The firm will not be issuing any new stock. What is Quigley's WACC? Round final answer to two decimal places. Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 9.37% b. 6.73% c. 6.11% d. 8.08% e. 6.97%

Q: Sorensen Systems Inc. is expected to pay a $2.50 dividend at year end (D1 = $2.50), the dividend is expected to grow at a constant rate of 5.50% a year, and the common stock currently sells for $87.50 a share. The before-tax cost of debt is 7.50%, and the tax rate is 25%. The target capital structure consists of 45% debt and 55% common equity. What is the companys WACC if all the equity used is from retained earnings? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 5.69% b. 6.62% c. 7.35% d. 7.13% e. 5.10%

Q: Weaver Chocolate Co. expects to earn $3.50 per share during the current year, its expected dividend payout ratio is 65%, its expected constant dividend growth rate is 6.0%, and its common stock currently sells for $55.00 per share. New stock can be sold to the public at the current price, but a flotation cost of 5% would be incurred. What would be the cost of equity from new common stock? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 10.35% b. 12.42% c. 11.49% d. 10.77% e. 10.66%

Q: You were recently hired by Scheuer Media Inc. to estimate its cost of capital. You obtained the following data: D1 = $1.75; P0 = $95.00; g = 7.00% (constant); and F = 5.00%. What is the cost of equity raised by selling new common stock? a. 8.22% b. 7.60% c. 8.76% d. 8.94% e. 10.01%

Q: Trahan Lumber Company hired you to help estimate its cost of capital. You obtained the following data: D1 = $1.25; P0 = $20.00; g = 5.00% (constant); and F = 6.00%. What is the cost of equity raised by selling new common stock? a. 13.98% b. 11.65% c. 12.35% d. 11.07% e. 13.75%

Q: Rivoli Inc. hired you as a consultant to help estimate its cost of capital. You have been provided with the following data: D0 = $0.80; P0 = $35.00; and g = 8.00% (constant). Based on the DCF approach, what is the cost of equity from retained earnings? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 12.35% b. 11.20% c. 10.47% d. 9.42% e. 9.63%

Q: Assume that Kish Inc. hired you as a consultant to help estimate its cost of capital. You have obtained the following data: D0 = $0.90; P0 = $47.50; and g = 7.00% (constant). Based on the DCF approach, what is the cost of equity from retained earnings? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 10.11% b. 7.22% c. 11.28% d. 6.95% e. 9.03%

Q: Several years ago the Jakob Company sold a $1,000 par value, noncallable bond that now has 20 years to maturity and a 7.00% annual coupon that is paid semiannually. The bond currently sells for $875 and the companys tax rate is 25%. What is the component cost of debt for use in the WACC calculation? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 4.92% b. 6.22% c. 5.92% d. 5.02% e. 4.33%

Q: To help finance a major expansion, Castro Chemical Company sold a noncallable bond several years ago that now has 20 years to maturity. This bond has a 9.25% annual coupon, paid semiannually, sells at a price of $875, and has a par value of $1,000. If the firm's tax rate is 25%, what is the component cost of debt for use in the WACC calculation? Do not round your intermediate calculations. a. 6.60% b. 7.77% c. 7.30% d. 6.47% e. 8.09%

Q: You were hired as a consultant to Giambono Company, whose target capital structure is 40% debt, 15% preferred, and 45% common equity. The after-tax cost of debt is 6.00%, the cost of preferred is 7.50%, and the cost of retained earnings is 11.50%. The firm will not be issuing any new stock. What is its WACC? a. 8.70% b. 8.87% c. 7.92% d. 7.66% e. 6.70%

Q: A. Butcher Timber Company hired your consulting firm to help them estimate the cost of equity. The yield on the firm's bonds is 12.00%, and your firm's economists believe that the cost of equity can be estimated using a risk premium of 3.85% over a firm's own cost of debt. What is an estimate of the firm's cost of equity from retained earnings? a. 15.85% b. 14.74% c. 12.52% d. 13.31% e. 14.58%

Q: Teall Development Company hired you as a consultant to help them estimate its cost of capital. You have been provided with the following data: D1 = $1.45; P0 = $28.00; and g = 6.50% (constant). Based on the DCF approach, what is the cost of equity from retained earnings? a. 9.34% b. 12.15% c. 10.16% d. 10.51% e. 11.68%

Q: Assume that you are a consultant to Broske Inc., and you have been provided with the following data: D1 = $0.67; P0 = $47.50; and g = 8.00% (constant). What is the cost of equity from retained earnings based on the DCF approach? a. 9.50% b. 9.41% c. 8.19% d. 10.63% e. 7.25%

Q: Scanlon Inc.'s CFO hired you as a consultant to help her estimate the cost of capital. You have been provided with the following data: rRF = 4.10%; RPM = 5.25%; and b = 1.70. Based on the CAPM approach, what is the cost of equity from retained earnings? a. 15.24% b. 12.63% c. 10.03% d. 13.94% e. 13.03%

Q: O'Brien Inc. has the following data: rRF = 5.00%; RPM = 6.00%; and b = 1.50. What is the firm's cost of equity from retained earnings based on the CAPM? a. 10.92% b. 12.46% c. 14.98% d. 15.54% e. 14.00%

Q: A companys perpetual preferred stock currently sells for $105.00 per share, and it pays an $8.00 annual dividend. If the company were to sell a new preferred issue, it would incur a flotation cost of 5.00% of the issue price. What is the firm's cost of preferred stock? a. 8.02% b. 6.18% c. 9.14% d. 9.70% e. 6.66%

Q: Bosio Inc.'s perpetual preferred stock sells for $102.50 per share, and it pays an $8.50 annual dividend. If the company were to sell a new preferred issue, it would incur a flotation cost of 4.00% of the price paid by investors. What is the company's cost of preferred stock for use in calculating the WACC? a. 9.33% b. 8.72% c. 7.26% d. 7.17% e. 8.64%

Q: Firm M's earnings and stock price tend to move up and down with other firms in the S&P 500, while Firm W's earnings and stock price move counter cyclically with M and other S&P companies. Both M and W estimate their costs of equity using the CAPM, they have identical market values, their standard deviations of returns are identical, and they both finance only with common equity. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. M should have the lower WACC because it is like most other companies, and investors like that fact. b. M and W should have identical WACCs because their risks as measured by the standard deviation of returns are identical. c. If M and W merge, then the merged firm MW should have a WACC that is a simple average of M's and W's WACCs. d. Without additional information, it is impossible to predict what the merged firm's WACC would be if M and W merged. e. Since M and W move counter cyclically to one another, if they merged, the merged firm's WACC would be less than the simple average of the two firms' WACCs.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Assume that the firm is a publicly-owned corporation and is seeking to maximize shareholder wealth. a. If a firm has a beta that is less than 1.0, say 0.9, this would suggest that the expected returns on its assets are negatively correlated with the returns on most other firms assets. b. If a firms managers want to maximize the value of the stock, they should, in theory, concentrate on project risk as measured by the standard deviation of the projects expected future cash flows. c. If a firm evaluates all projects using the same cost of capital, and the CAPM is used to help determine that cost, then its risk as measured by beta will probably decline over time. d. Projects with above-average risk typically have higher-than-average expected returns. Therefore, to maximize a firms intrinsic value, its managers should favor high-beta projects over those with lower betas. e. Project A has a standard deviation of expected returns of 20%, while Project Bs standard deviation is only 10%. As returns are negatively correlated with both the firms other assets and the returns on most stocks in the economy, while Bs returns are positively correlated. Therefore, Project A is less risky to a firm and should be evaluated with a lower cost of capital.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Since the costs of internal and external equity are related, an increase in the flotation cost required to sell a new issue of stock will increase the cost of retained earnings. b. Since its stockholders are not directly responsible for paying a corporations income taxes, corporations should focus on before-tax cash flows when calculating the WACC. c. An increase in a firms tax rate will increase the component cost of debt, provided the YTM on the firms bonds is not affected by the change in the tax rate. d. When the WACC is calculated, it should reflect the costs of new common stock, retained earnings, preferred stock, long-term debt, short-term bank loans if the firm normally finances with bank debt, and accounts payable if the firm normally has accounts payable on its balance sheet. e. If a firm has been suffering accounting losses that are expected to continue into the foreseeable future, and therefore its tax rate is zero, then it is possible for the after-tax cost of preferred stock to be less than the after-tax cost of debt.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach to estimating the cost of common equity involves adding a risk premium to the interest rate on the companys own long-term bonds. The size of the risk premium for bonds with different ratings is published daily in The Wall Street Journal or is available online. b. The WACC is calculated using a before-tax cost for debt that is equal to the interest rate that must be paid on new debt, along with the after-tax costs for common stock and for preferred stock if it is used. c. An increase in the risk-free rate is likely to reduce the marginal costs of both debt and equity. d. The relevant WACC can change depending on the amount of funds a firm raises during a given year. Moreover, the WACC at each level of funds raised is a weighted average of the marginal costs of each capital component, with the weights based on the firms target capital structure. e. Beta measures market risk, which is generally the most relevant risk measure for a publicly-owned firm that seeks to maximize its intrinsic value. However, this is not true unless all of the firms stockholders are well diversified.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The discounted cash flow method of estimating the cost of equity cannot be used unless the growth rate, g, is expected to be constant forever. b. If the calculated beta underestimates the firms true investment risk i.e., if the forward-looking beta that investors think exists exceeds the historical beta then the CAPM method based on the historical beta will produce an estimate of rs and thus WACC that is too high. c. Beta measures market risk, which is, theoretically, the most relevant risk measure for a publicly-owned firm that seeks to maximize its intrinsic value. This is true even if not all of the firms stockholders are well diversified. d. An advantage shared by both the DCF and CAPM methods when they are used to estimate the cost of equity is that they are both "objective" as opposed to "subjective," hence little or no judgment is required. e. The specific risk premium used in the CAPM is the same as the risk premium used in the bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Although some methods used to estimate the cost of equity are subject to severe limitations, the CAPM is a simple, straightforward, and reliable model that consistently produces accurate cost of equity estimates. In particular, academics and corporate finance people generally agree that its key inputs beta, the risk-free rate, and the market risk premium can be estimated with little error. b. The DCF model is generally preferred by academics and financial executives over other models for estimating the cost of equity. This is because of the DCF models logical appeal and also because accurate estimates for its key inputs, the dividend yield and the growth rate, are easy to obtain. c. The bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach to estimating the cost of equity may not always be accurate, but it has the advantage that its two key inputs, the firms own cost of debt and its risk premium, can be found by using standardized and objective procedures. d. Surveys indicate that the CAPM is the most widely used method for estimating the cost of equity. However, other methods are also used because CAPM estimates may be subject to error, and people like to use different methods as checks on one another. If all of the methods produce similar results, this increases the decision maker's confidence in the estimated cost of equity. e. The DCF model is preferred by academics and finance practitioners over other cost of capital models because it correctly recognizes that the expected return on a stock consists of a dividend yield plus an expected capital gains yield.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The cost of capital used to evaluate a project should be the cost of the specific type of financing used to fund that project, i.e., it is the after-tax cost of debt if debt is to be used to finance the project or the cost of equity if the project will be financed with equity. b. The after-tax cost of debt that should be used as the component cost when calculating the WACC is the average after-tax cost of all the firms outstanding debt. c. Suppose some of a publicly-traded firms stockholders are not diversified; they hold only the one firms stock. In this case, the CAPM approach will result in an estimated cost of equity that is too low in the sense that if it is used in capital budgeting, projects will be accepted that will reduce the firms intrinsic value. d. The cost of equity is generally harder to measure than the cost of debt because there is no stated, contractual cost number on which to base the cost of equity. e. The bond-yield-plus-risk-premium approach is the most sophisticated and objective method for estimating a firms cost of equity capital.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The component cost of preferred stock is expressed as rp(1 - T). This follows because preferred stock dividends are treated as fixed charges, and as such they can be deducted by the issuer for tax purposes. b. A cost should be assigned to retained earnings due to the opportunity cost principle, which refers to the fact that the firms stockholders would themselves expect to earn a return on earnings that were paid out rather than retained and reinvested. c. No cost should be assigned to retained earnings because the firm does not have to pay anything to raise them. They are generated as cash flows by operating assets that were raised in the past, hence they are free. d. Suppose a firm has been losing money and thus is not paying taxes, and this situation is expected to persist into the foreseeable future. In this case, the firms before-tax and after-tax costs of debt for purposes of calculating the WACC will both be equal to the interest rate on the firms currently outstanding debt, provided that debt was issued during the past 5 years. e. If a firm has enough retained earnings to fund its capital budget for the coming year, then there is no need to estimate either a cost of equity or a WACC.

Q: Safeco Company and Risco Inc are identical in size and capital structure. However, the riskiness of their assets and cash flows are somewhat different, resulting in Safeco having a WACC of 10% and Risco a WACC of 12%. Safeco is considering Project X, which has an IRR of 10.5% and is of the same risk as a typical Safeco project. Risco is considering Project Y, which has an IRR of 11.5% and is of the same risk as a typical Risco project. Now assume that the two companies merge and form a new company, Safeco/Risco Inc. Moreover, the new company's market risk is an average of the pre-merger companies' market risks, and the merger has no impact on either the cash flows or the risks of Projects X and Y. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. If the firm evaluates these projects and all other projects at the new overall corporate WACC, it will probably become riskier over time. b. If evaluated using the correct post-merger WACC, Project X would have a negative NPV. c. After the merger, Safeco/Risco would have a corporate WACC of 11%. Therefore, it should reject Project X but accept Project Y. d. Safeco/Riscos WACC, as a result of the merger, would be 10%. e. After the merger, Safeco/Risco should select Project Y but reject Project X. If the firm does this, its corporate WACC will fall to 10.5%.

Q: Cranberry Corp. has two divisions of equal size: a computer manufacturing division and a data processing division. Its CFO believes that stand-alone data processor companies typically have a WACC of 8%, while stand-alone computer manufacturers typically have a 12% WACC. He also believes that the data processing and manufacturing divisions have the same risk as their typical peers. Consequently, he estimates that the composite, or corporate, WACC is 10%. A consultant has suggested using an 8% hurdle rate for the data processing division and a 12% hurdle rate for the manufacturing division. However, the CFO disagrees, and he has assigned a 10% WACC to all projects in both divisions. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. While the decision to use just one WACC will result in its accepting more projects in the manufacturing division and fewer projects in its data processing division than if it followed the consultants recommendation, this should not affect the firms intrinsic value. b. The decision not to adjust for risk means, in effect, that it is favoring the data processing division. Therefore, that division is likely to become a larger part of the consolidated company over time. c. The decision not to adjust for risk means that the company will accept too many projects in the manufacturing division and too few in the data processing division. This will lead to a reduction in the firms intrinsic value over time. d. The decision not to risk adjust means that the company will accept too many projects in the data processing business and too few projects in the manufacturing business. This will lead to a reduction in its intrinsic value over time. e. The decision not to risk adjust means that the company will accept too many projects in the manufacturing business and too few projects in the data processing business. This may affect the firms capital structure but it will not affect its intrinsic value.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm's tax rate increases. b. The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm has raised so much capital that it is simply unable to borrow any more money. c. The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm is taking on investments that are so risky the firm is in serious danger of going bankrupt if things do not go exactly as planned. d. The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm has raised so much capital that it has exhausted its supply of additions to retained earnings and thus must raise equity by issuing stock. e. The "break point" as discussed in the text refers to the point where the firm has exhausted its supply of additions to retained earnings and thus must begin to finance with preferred stock.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. Since debt capital can cause a company to go bankrupt but equity capital cannot, debt is riskier than equity, and thus the after-tax cost of debt is always greater than the cost of equity. b. The tax-adjusted cost of debt is always greater than the interest rate on debt, provided the company does in fact pay taxes. c. If a company assigns the same cost of capital to all of its projects regardless of each projects risk, then the company is likely to reject some safe projects that it actually should accept and to accept some risky projects that it should reject. d. Because no flotation costs are required to obtain capital as retained earnings, the cost of retained earnings is generally lower than the after-tax cost of debt. e. Higher flotation costs tend to reduce the cost of equity capital.

Q: For a company whose target capital structure calls for 50% debt and 50% common equity, which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The interest rate used to calculate the WACC is the average after-tax cost of all the company's outstanding debt as shown on its balance sheet. b. The WACC is calculated on a before-tax basis. c. The WACC exceeds the cost of equity. d. The cost of equity is always equal to or greater than the cost of debt. e. The cost of retained earnings typically exceeds the cost of new common stock.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The WACC is calculated using before-tax costs for all components. b. The after-tax cost of debt usually exceeds the after-tax cost of equity. c. For a given firm, the after-tax cost of debt is always more expensive than the after-tax cost of non-convertible preferred stock. d. Retained earnings that were generated in the past and are reported on the firms balance sheet are available to finance the firms capital budget during the coming year. e. The WACC that should be used in capital budgeting is the firms marginal, after-tax cost of capital.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. A change in a companys target capital structure cannot affect its WACC. b. WACC calculations should be based on the before-tax costs of all the individual capital components. c. Flotation costs associated with issuing new common stock normally reduce the WACC. d. If a companys tax rate increases, then, all else equal, its weighted average cost of capital will decline. e. An increase in the risk-free rate will normally lower the marginal costs of both debt and equity financing.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The WACC as used in capital budgeting is an estimate of a companys before-tax cost of capital. b. The percentage flotation cost associated with issuing new common equity is typically smaller than the flotation cost for new debt. c. The WACC as used in capital budgeting is an estimate of the cost of all the capital a company has raised to acquire its assets. d. There is an opportunity cost associated with using retained earnings, hence they are not free. e. The WACC as used in capital budgeting would be simply the before-tax cost of debt if the firm plans to use only debt to finance its capital budget during the coming year.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. In the WACC calculation, we must adjust the cost of preferred stock (the market yield) to reflect the fact that 70% of the dividends received by corporate investors are excluded from their taxable income. b. We should use historical measures of the component costs from prior financings that are still outstanding when estimating a companys WACC for capital budgeting purposes. c. The cost of new equity (re) could possibly be lower than the cost of retained earnings (rs) if the market risk premium, risk-free rate, and the companys beta all decline by a sufficiently large amount. d. Its cost of retained earnings is the rate of return stockholders require on a firms common stock. e. The component cost of preferred stock is expressed as rp(1 - T), because preferred stock dividends are treated as fixed charges, similar to the treatment of interest on debt.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. When calculating the cost of debt, a company needs to adjust for taxes, because interest payments are deductible by the paying corporation. b. When calculating the cost of preferred stock, companies must adjust for taxes, because dividends paid on preferred stock are deductible by the paying corporation. c. Because of tax effects, an increase in the risk-free rate will have a greater effect on the after-tax cost of debt than on the cost of common stock as measured by the CAPM. d. If a companys beta increases, this will increase the cost of equity used to calculate the WACC, but only if the company does not have enough retained earnings to take care of its equity financing and hence must issue new stock. e. Higher flotation costs reduce investors' expected returns, and that leads to a reduction in a companys WACC.

Q: Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. When calculating the cost of preferred stock, a company needs to adjust for taxes, because preferred stock dividends are deductible by the paying corporation. b. All else equal, an increase in a companys stock price will increase its marginal cost of retained earnings, rs. c. All else equal, an increase in a companys stock price will increase its marginal cost of new common equity, re. d. Since the money is readily available, the after-tax cost of retained earnings is usually much lower than the after-tax cost of debt. e. If a companys tax rate increases but the YTM on its noncallable bonds remains the same, the after-tax cost of its debt will fall.

Q: If a typical U.S. company correctly estimates its WACC at a given point in time and then uses that same cost of capital to evaluate all projects for the next 10 years, then the firm will most likely a. become riskier over time, but its intrinsic value will be maximized. b. become less risky over time, and this will maximize its intrinsic value. c. accept too many low-risk projects and too few high-risk projects. d. become more risky and also have an increasing WACC. Its intrinsic value will not be maximized. e. continue as before, because there is no reason to expect its risk position or value to change over time as a result of its use of a single cost of capital.

Q: The MacMillen Company has equal amounts of low-risk, average-risk, and high-risk projects. The firm's overall WACC is 12%. The CFO believes that this is the correct WACC for the companys average-risk projects, but that a lower rate should be used for lower-risk projects and a higher rate for higher-risk projects. The CEO disagrees, on the grounds that even though projects have different risks, the WACC used to evaluate each project should be the same because the company obtains capital for all projects from the same sources. If the CEOs position is accepted, what is likely to happen over time? a. The company will take on too many high-risk projects and reject too many low-risk projects. b. The company will take on too many low-risk projects and reject too many high-risk projects. c. Things will generally even out over time, and, therefore, the firms risk should remain constant over time. d. The companys overall WACC should decrease over time because its stock price should be increasing. e. The CEOs recommendation would maximize the firms intrinsic value.

Q: Norris Enterprises, an all-equity firm, has a beta of 2.0. The chief financial officer is evaluating a project with an expected return of 14%, before any risk adjustment. The risk-free rate is 5%, and the market risk premium is 4%. The project being evaluated is riskier than the firms average project, in terms of both its beta risk and its total risk. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The project should definitely be accepted because its expected return (before any risk adjustments) is greater than its required return. b. The project should definitely be rejected because its expected return (before risk adjustment) is less than its required return. c. Riskier-than-average projects should have their expected returns increased to reflect their higher risk. Clearly, this would make the project acceptable regardless of the amount of the adjustment. d. The accept/reject decision depends on the firm's risk-adjustment policy. If Norris' policy is to increase the required return on a riskier-than-average project to 3% over rs, then it should reject the project. e. Capital budgeting projects should be evaluated solely on the basis of their total risk. Thus, insufficient information has been provided to make the accept/reject decision.

Q: LaPango Inc. estimates that its average-risk projects have a WACC of 10%, its below-average risk projects have a WACC of 8%, and its above-average risk projects have a WACC of 12%. Which of the following projects (A, B, and C) should the company accept? a. Project B, which is of below-average risk and has a return of 8.5%. b. Project C, which is of above-average risk and has a return of 11%. c. Project A, which is of average risk and has a return of 9%. d. None of the projects should be accepted. e. All of the projects should be accepted.

Q: Duval Inc. uses only equity capital, and it has two equally-sized divisions. Division As cost of capital is 10.0%, Division Bs cost is 14.0%, and the corporate (composite) WACC is 12.0%. All of Division As projects are equally risky, as are all of Division B's projects. However, the projects of Division A are less risky than those of Division B. Which of the following projects should the firm accept? a. A Division B project with a 13% return. b. A Division B project with a 12% return. c. A Division A project with an 11% return. d. A Division A project with a 9% return. e. A Division B project with an 11% return.

Q: When working with the CAPM, which of the following factors can be determined with the most precision? a. The market risk premium (RPM). b. The beta coefficient, bi, of a relatively safe stock. c. The most appropriate risk-free rate, rRF. d. The expected rate of return on the market, rM. e. The beta coefficient of the market, which is the same as the beta of an average stock.

Q: For a typical firm, which of the following sequences is CORRECT? All rates are after taxes, and assume that the firm operates at its target capital structure. a. rs > re > rd > WACC. b. re > rs > WACC > rd. c. WACC > re > rs > rd. d. rd > re > rs > WACC. e. WACC > rd > rs > re.

Q: Kulwicki Corporation wants to determine the effect of an expansion of its sales on its operating income (EBIT). The firm's current degree of operating leverage is 4.50. It projects new unit sales to be 170,000, an increase of 45,000 over last year's level of 125,000 units. Last year's EBIT was $60,000. Based on a degree of operating leverage of 4.50, what is this year's expected EBIT with the increase in sales? a. $157,200 b. $138,336 c. $196,500 d. $193,356 e. $147,768

Q: 40 = DOL 1.1500 DOL = 1.2174

Q: PQR Manufacturing Corporation has $1,500,000 in debt outstanding. The company's before-tax cost of debt is 10%. Sales for the year totaled $3,500,000 and variable costs were 60% of sales. Net income was equal to $600,000 and the company's tax rate was 40%. If PQR's degree of total leverage is equal to 1.40, what is its degree of operating leverage? Do not round intermediate calculations. a. 0.9496 b. 1.0713 c. 1.0470 d. 1.5217 e. 1.2174

Q: 84I = $342,105

Q: 84 = $1,500,000 / ($1,000,000 I)

Q: Coats Corp. generates $10,000,000 in sales. Its variable costs equal 85.00% of sales and its fixed costs are $500,000. Therefore, the company's operating income (EBIT) equals $1,000,000. The company estimates that if its sales were to increase 9.50%, its net income and EPS would increase 17.50%. What is the company's interest expense? Do not round intermediate calculations. a. $222,857 b. $148,571 c. $185,714 d. $224,714 e. $143,000

Q: Maxvill Motors has annual sales of $14,200. Its variable costs equal 60% of its sales and its fixed costs equal $1,000. If the company's sales increase 10%, what will be the percentage increase in the company's earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT)? a. 13.47% b. 12.14% c. 11.29% d. 12.62% e. 11.65%

Q: The degree of operating leverage has which of the following characteristics? a. The closer the firm is operating to the breakeven quantity, the smaller the DOL. b. A change in quantity demanded will produce the same percentage change in EBIT as an identical change in price per unit of output, other things held constant. c. The DOL is not a fixed number for a given firm, but will depend upon the time zero values of the economic variable Q (Quantity), P (Price), and V (Volume). d. The DOL relates the change in net income to the change in operating income. e. If the firm has no debt, the DOL will equal 1.