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Q:
Which of the following is not usually a characteristic of successful high-volume systems?
A. smooth workflow through the system
B. customized output
C. rapid repair of breakdowns
D. minimal quality problems
E. reliable supply schedules
Q:
Which of the following is not an example of a high-volume system?
A. aircraft manufacturing
B. magazine printing
C. petroleum refining
D. waste treatment
E. commercial donut baking
Q:
Which of the following is the last step in the capacity/scheduling chain?
A. product planning
B. process planning
C. capacity planning
D. aggregate planning
E. scheduling
Q:
Scheduling pertains to:
A. hiring workers.
B. process selection.
C. buying machinery.
D. timing the use of specific resources.
E. determining the lowest cost.
Q:
Ensuring that the constraining resource is used to its maximum is an example of constraint:
A. elevation.
B. subordination.
C. identification.
D. elimination.
E. exploitation.
Q:
To facilitate utilization of bottleneck operations, in theory of constraints scheduling ________ can be split into __________ to reduce waiting times.
A. bottleneck lots; nonbottleneck lots
B. transfer batches; process lots
C. sized lots; constrained lots
D. process batches; transfer batches
E. buffer lots; transfer lots
Q:
In theory of constraints scheduling, the synchronization of the sequence of operations is referred to as the:
A. buffer.
B. bottleneck.
C. constraint.
D. rope.
E. drum.
Q:
In theory of constraints scheduling, the __________ refers to the schedule and the __________ refers to inventory used to ensure that the bottleneck is never idle.
A. rope; drum
B. drum; rope
C. drum; buffer
D. buffer; drum
E. buffer; rope
Q:
Which of the following is present in the manufacturing scheduling hierarchy but is absent in the service scheduling hierarchy?
A. aggregate planning
B. materials planning
C. master scheduling
D. detailed, short-term scheduling
E. detailed, short-term planning
Q:
Similar to that in manufacturing, the service scheduling hierarchy begins with __________ and ends with _________.
A. aggregate planning; detailed daily scheduling
B. aggregate planning; master scheduling
C. master scheduling; detailed material planning
D. aggregate planning; detailed material planning
E. quarterly planning; monthly planning
Q:
The theory of constraints has a goal of maximizing flow through the entire system.
Q:
Makespan is the total time needed to complete a group of jobs.
Q:
In the decision-making hierarchy, scheduling decisions are the final step in the transformation process before actual output occurs.
Q:
If optimal sequencing through three work centers is desired, Johnson's rule II is used rather than Johnson's rule.
Q:
Bottlenecks may shift with the passage of time, so that different operations become bottleneck operations at different times.
Q:
The SPT priority rule always results in the lowest average completion time.
Q:
Priority rules are used in low-volume systems to identify an optimal processing sequence.
Q:
In a single work center, makespan improvement can be accomplished by selecting the optimal sequencing rule.
Q:
Priority rules generally assume that job setup cost is independent of processing sequence of jobs.
Q:
The assignment method is limited to a maximum of two jobs per resource.
Q:
Priority rules are widely used to sequence jobs in high-volume systems.
Q:
Sequencing is concerned with the order in which jobs are done, while loading is concerned with assigning jobs to work centers or workstations.
Q:
The assignment model seeks an optimum matching of tasks and resources.
Q:
A schedule chart can be used to monitor job progress.
Q:
Infinite loading and finite loading are two major approaches used to load work centers.
Q:
Input/output (I/O) control refers to monitoring the productivity changes since productivity is determined by the ratio of output to input.
Q:
Splitting a large lot after one operation beyond a bottleneck operation would reduce the overall waiting time of the bottleneck operation.
Q:
The quantity sent to a bottleneck operation could be split into two or more process batches to better utilize a bottleneck resource rather than process the entire batch.
Q:
As long as the bottleneck operations are used effectively, idle time in non-bottleneck operations will not affect the overall productivity of the system.
Q:
The elimination of idle time on both bottleneck and non-bottleneck operations must be accomplished to optimize output.
Q:
The output of the system cannot exceed the output of the bottleneck operation(s).
Q:
A schedule chart depicts the loading and idle times for a group of machines or departments.
Q:
A Gantt chart is a basic scheduling tool that is most useful in low-volume systems.
Q:
A Gantt chart is a basic scheduling tool that works best for high-volume systems.
Q:
Loading is the determination of which work centers should perform which jobs.
Q:
The term loading, as used in scheduling, refers to choosing the order in which jobs will be processed in low-volume systems.
Q:
When orders exceed our capacity, priority rules are used to select which orders will be accepted.
Q:
When operations are often bottlenecked, additional planned idle time will improve the throughput in those areas.
Q:
Scheduling in intermediate-volume systems has three basic issues: run size, timing, and sequence.
Q:
Line balancing is a major factor in the design and scheduling of low-volume systems because of batch processing.
Q:
Flow-shop scheduling is used in high-volume systems.
Q:
Given the following information concerning jobs awaiting processing at a single work center, what processing sequence will result if the critical ratio rule is used?
Q:
Use Johnson's rule to determine the optimum processing sequence for the jobs listed in the following table. Chart total throughput time.
Q:
Determine the processing sequence for the six jobs shown in the following table using Johnson's rule. Calculate total throughput time. Can the makespan be reduced by splitting the latest job? If so, by how much?
Q:
Using the information in the table, determine the following: (A) Processing sequence using (1) SPT and (2) EDD rules
(B) Average completion time and average job tardiness under each rule
Q:
Given the information in the table, determine the following: (A) Processing sequence using (1) SPT and (2) EDD
(B) Average completion time and average job tardiness using (1) SPT and (2) EDD
Q:
A manager must assign four engineers to projects, one to a project. The leader of project C has indicated that he does not want engineer 2 or 3 on his project. Given the following cost figures for each project-engineer combination, and keeping in mind that two combinations are undesirable, determine assignments such that total cost will be minimized.
Q:
The costs to do each of the three jobs on three alternate pieces of equipment are given below. Determine the job-equipment combination that will minimize total cost.
Q:
Using the cost information given in the following table, assign work crews to jobs so that total cost is minimized.
Q:
Given the following data for jobs awaiting processing at a manufacturing cell in which jobs are first processed by machine A, then by machine B: When does idle time occur at machine B for the optimum schedule?
Q:
Refer to the following data for jobs waiting to be processed at a single work center (jobs are shown in order of arrival): What is the average completion time for the shortest processing time priority rule? Average job tardiness? Average number of jobs at the center?
Q:
There are three jobs to be done and three resources with which to do them. Each resource will cost a specific amount to do each job, as shown in the following table: What is the total cost for the optimum assignment of jobs to machines?
Q:
Which of the following is least likely to be a consideration when scheduling a high-volume system?
A. equipment failures
B. material shortages
C. accidents
D. worker absences
E. demand variability
Q:
Which of the following is critical to effective yield management?
A. one-price pricing
B. forecasting
C. capacity flexibility
D. constant demand
E. trained service personnel
Q:
Job X arrived at work center Q at noon. At 2 p.m. that same day X was begun. X left work center Q at 3:15 p.m. that same day. X's flow time, in minutes, was:
A. 195.
B. 120.
C. 75.
D. 60.
E. Cannot be determined.
Q:
Job X, which has a duration of four days, is due by the close of business on Friday, December 23. Without looking at the work already at X's required resource, the scheduler schedules X to be begun immediately and assumes that X will be done four days from now. This is an example of:
A. infinite scheduling.
B. finite scheduling.
C. forward scheduling.
D. backward scheduling.
E. prioritization.
Q:
Job X, which has a duration of four days, is due by the close of business on Friday, December 23. Without looking at the work already scheduled on X's required resource, the scheduler schedules X to be begun on the morning of Tuesday, December 20. This is an example of:
A. infinite scheduling.
B. finite scheduling.
C. forward scheduling.
D. backward scheduling.
E. prioritization.
Q:
The operations manager of a body and paint shop has five cars to schedule for repair. He would like to minimize the throughput time to complete all work on these cars. Each car requires body work prior to painting. The estimates of the times required to do the body paint work on each are as follows: What is the idle time at the paint work center for the optimal schedule? A. 1 hour B. 2 hours C. 4 hours D. 7 hours E. 10 hours
Q:
Eva, the owner of Eva's Second Time Around Wedding Dresses, currently has five dresses to be altered, shown in the order in which they arrived: If Eva uses the shortest processing time first priority rule to schedule these jobs, what will be the average number of jobs in her shop today? A. 2 jobs B. 2.33 jobs C. 2.4 jobs D. 2.67 jobs E. 3 jobs
Q:
The owner/operator of the local franchise of Handyman, Inc., has four jobs to do today, shown in the order they were received: If he uses the shortest processing time first priority rule to schedule these jobs, what will be the average number of jobs in his shop today? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4
Q:
The president of a consulting firm wants to minimize the total number of hours it will take to complete four projects for a new client. Accordingly, she has estimated the time it should take for each of her top consultantsCharlie, Betty, Johnny, and Rickto complete any of the four projects, as follows: For the optimal schedule, what is the total number of hours it will take these consultants to complete these projects? A. 53 hours B. 46 hours C. 50 hours D. 61 hours E. 54 hours
Q:
There are four resources and four jobs to be done. The time required for each resource to do each job is as follows: For the optimal schedule, what is the total number of hours required to complete these jobs? A. 23 hours B. 22 hours C. 21 hours D. 20 hours E. 19 hours
Q:
A given inventory item has a per-year holding cost of $500. One method of shipping this item is three days faster than the other, but it is $2.50 more per unit. Using the slower method would be __________ more expensive overall than using the faster method.
A. $1.08
B. $1.16
C. $2.37
D. $2.73
E. $1.61
Q:
The website and order fulfillment are essential features of:
A. delayed differentiation.
B. e-commerce.
C. Internet service providers.
D. inventory balancing.
E. market segmentation.
Q:
Real-time information about product movement on store shelves could benefit from the use of:
A. batch processing.
B. economic order quantities.
C. statistical process control.
D. radio frequency identification tags.
E. infrared remote scanners.
Q:
Our organization can obtain visibility to potential trading partners on the Internet by using:
A. C2C.
B. B2C.
C. B2B.
D. C2B.
E. 2BC.
Q:
The activity which begins with a request from within the organization is:
A. outsourcing search.
B. purchasing cycle.
C. supplier selection.
D. order receipt.
E. supply chain management.
Q:
Which of the following is a principle required for ethical behavior in purchasing? (I) loyalty to employer
(II) justice to those you deal with
(III) faith in your profession
A. III only
B. I only
C. II only
D. I, II, and III
E. II and III only
Q:
Last quarter, a retailer sold 8,000 T-shirts, 7,000 of which were sold directly from on-hand inventory. This retailer's ________ was 88 percent.
A. fill rate
B. inventory yield
C. profit margin
D. inventory turnover
E. working yield
Q:
Vendor analysis is the examination of the _________ of purchased materials.
A. function
B. source
C. quality
D. cycle
E. quantity
Q:
The purchasing perspective of the supplier as a partner is characterized by:
A. an emphasis on low prices.
B. one or a few suppliers.
C. low flexibility.
D. 100 percent inspection for quality.
E. low volume.
Q:
Which of the following is not a benefit of centralized purchasing?
A. potential for quantity discounts
B. better service from suppliers
C. quick response to local needs
D. potential for use of purchasing specialists
E. supplier research
Q:
Which of the following is least likely to be a key consideration when a company chooses a supplier?
A. lead time and on-time delivery
B. reputation and financial stability
C. value analysis
D. quality and quality assurance
E. flexibility of design change
Q:
Which of the following is part of the purchasing cycle? (I) Purchasing selects a supplier.
(II) Orders from vendors are received.
(III) Purchasing receives a requisition.
A. II and III
B. I, II, and III
C. I only
D. I and II
E. I and III
Q:
Which of the following would not usually be a main factor in selecting a vendor?
A. location
B. price
C. quality
D. inventory turnover
E. vendor services
Q:
Which of the following is not a performance driver?
A. quality
B. cost
C. stability
D. velocity
E. flexibility
Q:
Which of the following is not true of vendor analysis?
A. It involves an examination of the function of purchased parts or raw materials.
B. Its purpose is to reduce costs and/or improve performance of purchased goods or services.
C. It is usually performed only periodically.
D. Representatives from design and operations may work with purchasing.
E. If improvements are identified, purchasing implements those that purchasing agrees are justified.
Q:
Vendor analysis has the greatest potential for savings for items which have:
A. low cost per unit.
B. low annual cost-volume.
C. high cost per unit.
D. high annual usage.
E. high annual cost-volume.
Q:
Examination of the sources of supply for purchased parts or materials in order to improve performance is called:
A. vendor analysis.
B. value analysis.
C. negotiated purchasing.
D. reverse engineering.
E. disintegration.
Q:
The purchasing cycle begins with:
A. selecting a supplier.
B. placing an order.
C. evaluating potential vendors.
D. conducting a value analysis.
E. receiving a requisition.