Q&A Hero

Q: 20. OSHA recommends new standards to NIOSH.a. trueb. false

Q: 36. The term "grandfathered" applies most closely to which of the following? a. NIOSH b. the General Duty Clause c. National Consensus Standards d. the Barlow Decision

Q: 21. OSHA is prohibited from conducting inspections on the night shift.a. trueb. false

Q: 22. A construction company may be cited by OSHA a. only from the Part 1926 Construction standards b. only from the Part 1910 General Industry standards c. from both the Part 1926 and 1910 standards d. none of the above

Q: 23. Which of the following violations is subject to the most severe maximum OSHA penalty? a. serious violations of standards b. failure to post a citation c. falsifying records d. giving advance notice of an inspection

Q: 24. Explain how OSHA can use its enforcement powers to intimidate an employer to take action to safeguard employees when there is no standard in place that addresses the specific hazard in question.

Q: 25. Congress extended the "promulgation authority" to what federal agency?

Q: 26. What is meant by the term "promulgation?"

Q: 27. Certain entities are exempt from the requirement for promulgation. What are these exempt items called? For what length of time did Congress permit this exemption?

Q: 28. The revocation process is exempt from the requirement for promulgation.a. trueb. false

Q: 29. Which of the following are subject to requirements of the promulgation process? a. new standards b. revision of old standards c. revocation of standards d. all of the above e. none of the above

Q: 14. Appeals of citations can be taken through the judicial process all the way to the U.S. Supreme Court.a. trueb. false

Q: 30. Which of the following are not subject to the promulgation process: a. new standards issued after the Barlow Decision b. revision of standards at any time c. blanket revocation of the standards d. national consensus standards e. all of the above are exempt from the promulgation process

Q: 67. "De minimus" describes a. the lowest level of compliance considered acceptable to the OSHA enforcement agency b. a notice, issued in lieu of a citation, for conditions that have no direct or immediate relationship to safety or health c. a way in which employers give the appearance of complying with standards while sidestepping the real safety and health issues. d. the procedure used in the informal conference by which OSHA reduces penalties to the lowest possible levels for small employers who have shown good faith in attempting to comply with standards.

Q: 68. The Barlow decision changed which of the following:a. The rights of employees to retaliate against employers who have discriminated against them for exercising their rights under OSHA.b. The rights of employers to demand that OSHA produce a court order before proceeding with an inspection.c. The rights of employers to appeal an OSHA citation all the way to the U.S. Supreme Court.d. The authority of the Occupational Safety and Health Review Commission to INCREASE a proposed OSHA penalty in addition to the more traditional and accepted authority to reduce it.

Q: 1. Variances must be appealed within 15 working days or they become final.a. trueb. false

Q: 2. The deadline for appealing an OSHA citation is a. fifteen working days b. six months c. five years d. never; there is no statutory deadline

Q: 3. What is the penalty for discrimination against an employee for exercising his rights under the OSHA law?

Q: 4. OSHA is authorized to make inspections and issue citations to state agencies and political subdivisions (such as municipalities) of states.a. trueb. false

Q: 5. Which of the following categories has the highest OSHA inspection priority? a. imminent danger b. fatalities and major accidents c. employee complaints d. high hazard industries

Q: 6. Which of the following is a primary function of NIOSH? a. research b. enforcement c. variances d. appeals

Q: 7. The "General Duty Clause" prescribes general duties for which of the following parties? a. OSHA Compliance Officers b. OSHRC Commissioners c. employers d. labor unions

Q: 8. Following proper rulemaking procedures, OSHA is currently permitted to do all of the following except: a. promulgate new standards b. issue national consensus standards c. revise old standards d. revoke standards

Q: 9. The basic structure of the OSHA standards isa. horizontalb. vertical

Q: 49. What three factors are used in a formula by OSHA to compute a reduced penalty in the event of citation?

Q: 10. OSHA citations are required to be a. kept confidential b. posted near where the violation occurred c. published in the Federal Register d. none of the above

Q: 50. The maximum penalty for "willful violation" is a. greater than for non serious violations but less than for serious violations. b. the same as for serious violations c. twice as high as for serious violations d. ten times as high as for serious violations

Q: 11. A "de minimus notice" is a. an emergency citation for imminent danger situations b. used to indicate minor violations which have no direct relationship to safety or health c. temporary notice to give the employer a minimum time to correct a violation d. none of the above

Q: 51. Failure to post notices and citations is a. classified as a de minimus violation b. punishable by a fine of up to $7000 c. the issue addressed by the Barlow decision d. all of the above e. none of the above

Q: 12. Annual fines collected due to OSHA citations a. are less than OSHA's annual budget b. are approximately equal to OSHA's budget c. are greater than OSHA's annual budget

Q: 52. Which of the following offenses does not carry a possible prison sentence? a. serious violations b. willful violation resulting in death c. giving advance notice of an inspection d. falsification of records

Q: 13. The employer has how many days in which to make a decision whether to contest an OSHA citation? a. 5 working days b. 15 working days c. 30 calendar days d. 90 calendar days

Q: 53. What is the penalty for the discrimination against employees for exercising their rights under the OSHA law?

Q: 61. Which of the following is identified as first preference in the "three lines of defense" in the elimination of workplace hazards? a. Enforcement b. Engineering c. Psychological d. Analytical

Q: 62. The second principle of "Engineering Principles of Safe Design" is "substitute." Explain this principle. In your explanation include at least two example substitutions.

Q: 63. A proposed engineering improvement to a process is expected to reduce accidents by a significant amount. The engineering improvement will represent an annual process cost of $5000, including interest and amortization of the original investment. The average direct Workers Compensation costs attributable to the type of accident that would be prevented is approximately $4000 per accident. Perform a cost benefit analysis to determine how much improvement in accident prevention would be necessary to justify this engineering improvement. Justify your analysis by stating any reasonable assumptions that are necessary.

Q: 64. Safety from the ground up is a movement that gets managers out on the shop floor assessing the safety of employees.a. trueb. false

Q: 65. PPE is the most preferred method of dealing with hazards. c. true

Q: 66 Why is PPE the least-preferred line of defense?

Q: 67 In what ways can slowing a process down make it safer?

Q: 68 The fishbone diagram was developed by: a. Kaoru Ishikawa b. Dr. W. Edwards Deming c. Walter Shewhart

Q: 69 What is the central premise to Swiss Cheese Theory and how is it applied to safety?

Q: 54. The British "Standard Code of Practise for Safety of Machinery" considers (assigns points to) three different criteria in the classification of hazards.a. Trueb. False

Q: 70 Give an example of a practical application of Swiss cheese theory.

Q: 55. Explain the difference between the concepts of "potential for injury" and "frequency of access" as used by the British Standard Code of Practise for Safety of Machinery.

Q: 71 What is the advantage of safety from the ground up?

Q: 56. The text compares two national priorities for risk abatement. What are these two national priorities?

Q: 57. Which risk, asbestos or radon, is considered higher priority for elimination in the United States? Justify your answer.

Q: 58. Which risk, asbestos or radon, is a more serious hazard in the United States? Justify your answer.

Q: 59. Demonstrate your knowledge of fault-tree construction by drawing an example diagram, labeling event causes and results for a familiar accident. You may use one of the examples used in the book or devise a simple example of your own, using commonly understood causes to demonstrate your knowledge of the logical relationships.

Q: 60. Draw the fault-tree diagram that represents the following causal relationships: Event A can (and will) result in an accident if Cause B is also present. However, both Cause C and Cause D must be present for Cause B to happen. Cause B will definitely happen if Cause C and Cause D are present.

Q: 45. A hazard can be in the second level of severity and still be classified as "imminent danger" according to the RAC code.a. Trueb. False

Q: 46. Can a risk of fatality ever be considered "moderate?" Explain your reasoning.

Q: 47. Under what circumstances can a risk of fatality be rated as only a "moderate" hazard?

Q: 48. When a fire can result in a loss that exceeds $1,000,000, can the hazard ever be considered "moderate" under the Air Force Risk Assessment Code? Explain your reasoning.

Q: 49. The Risk Assessment Code (RAC) used by the U.S. Air Force rates a fatality hazard as "serious" regardless of mishap probability.a. Trueb. False

Q: 34. The Principle of Worst Case is addressed by which of the following approaches to hazard avoidance? a. Enforcement b. Psychological c. Engineering d. none of the above

Q: 50. The risk of a lost workday mishap can never be considered "negligible" under the Air Force Risk Assessment Code.a. Trueb. False

Q: 35. Two different scenarios will lead to the point of irreversibility for a particular accident. Hazards A and B are both considered essential conditions for the first scenario. Hazard C is considered a sufficient condition in and of itself in the second scenario. Draw a fault tree diagram that describes the relationship between hazard A, B, and C and the accident.

Q: 51. It is improper to classify any hazard as "negligible" under the Risk Assessment Code if there is the possibility that it will occur in time.a. Trueb. False

Q: 36. Which of the following analyses is considered a posteriori? a. accident analysis b. fault tree analysis c. failure modes and effects analysis d. toxicology

Q: 52. The British Standard Code of Practise for Safety of Machinery considers (assigns points to) how many different criteria in the classification of hazards?

Q: 37. Explain the term "epidemiology" as it relates to the field of occupational safety and health. Name two workplace hazards that have been identified by this method.

Q: 53. What three criteria of hazard classification are addressed by the British Standard Code of Practise for Safety of Machinery?

Q: 38. A proposed engineering control is expected to cut the accident rate in half for a given process. Cost data for accidents with this process have been estimated by auditors as follows (average cost per accident): DIRECT HIDDEN TOTAL FREQUENCY COSTS COSTS COSTS PER YEAR First aid cases none 200 200 6.0 Med. treatment cases 200 900 1100 1.5 Lost time cases 300 2000 2300 0.5 No-injury cases 200 200 400 0.5 Calculate the total annual accident cost reduction benefit expected for this proposed engineering control.

Q: 39. Five different and independent conditions (A, B, C, D, and E) can contribute to the cause of an accident (Event X). Condition A is of itself sufficient cause to result in accident X. Either condition B or condition C can cause the accident X if either D or E also occur. Draw the Fault Tree that represents the above-described causal relationship.

Q: 40. The Risk Assessment Code (RAC) used by the U.S. Air Force ranks hazards according to what two factors?

Q: 41. The Risk Assessment Code (RAC) used by the U.S. Air Force identifies five different levels of risk. Name these five levels:

Q: 42. How many levels of "severity" are considered in the Risk Assessment Code (RAC) used by the U.S. Air Force?

Q: 43. How many levels of "mishap probability" are considered in the Risk Assessment Code (RAC) used by the U.S. Air Force?

Q: 44. A hazard must be in the highest categories of both "mishap severity" and "mishap probability" to be identified as a RAC "code 1-imminent danger."a. Trueb. False

Q: 29. Toxicology is classified as belonging to which of the following approaches to hazard avoidance? a. Enforcement b. Psychological c. Engineering d. Analytical

Q: 14. Using statistical analysis to link the occurrence of lung fibrosis to workers who are exposed to asbestos is best classified as which of the following types of studies: a. toxicology b. fault tree analysis c. epidemiology d. failure modes and effects analysis

Q: 30. Epidemiology is classified as belonging to which of the following approaches to hazard avoidance? a. Enforcement b. Psychological c. Engineering d. Analytical

Q: 15. Explain the purpose of the "hazards classification scale" as explained in the text.

Q: 31. The Loss Incident Causation Model method is classified as belonging to which of the following approaches to hazard avoidance? a. Enforcement b. Psychological c. Engineering d. Analytical

Q: 16. Cost is a critical element included in the "Ten-point scale for Hazards Classification" as set forth in the text. a. True

Q: 32. Murphy's Law is addressed by which of the following approaches to hazard avoidance? a. Enforcement b. Psychological c. Engineering d. none of the above

Q: 17. What two elements are conspicuous in their absence from the Hazards Classification Scale as set forth in the text?

Q: 33. The Principle of Redundancy is addressed by which of the following approaches to hazard avoidance? a. Enforcement b. Psychological c. Engineering d. none of the above