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Q:
Forward scheduling is the scheduling of
A) the end items or finished products
B) jobs as soon as the requirements are known
C) the start items or component parts
D) the final operation first beginning with the due date
E) jobs according to their profit contributions
Q:
The sequence of decisions that affect scheduling is
A) short termu2192intermediate termu2192long term
B) capacity planningu2192aggregate planningu2192master scheduleu2192short-term schedules
C) strategic decisionsu2192tactical decisionsu2192operational decisions
D) forward decisionsu2192current decisionsu2192backward decisions
E) none of the above
Q:
The correct sequence from longest to smallest duration scheduling is
A) capacity planning, aggregate planning, master schedule, short-term schedule
B) aggregate planning, capacity planning, master schedule, short-term schedule
C) master schedule, capacity planning, aggregate planning, short-term schedule
D) master schedule, aggregate planning, capacity planning, short-term schedule
E) None of the above is correct
Q:
The objective of scheduling is to
A) maximize quality
B) minimize cost
C) minimize response time
D) prioritize and allocate demand to capacity
E) minimize lead time
Q:
Which of the following is not a key benefit from effective scheduling?
A) lower cost
B) faster delivery
C) dependable delivery
D) quality
E) A and D
Q:
The three components that can lead to competitive advantage through effective scheduling are
A) quality, dispatching, and MRP
B) ABC analysis, MRP, and loading
C) the item master file, the routing file, and the work-center master file
D) lower costs, faster delivery, and dependable delivery
E) Gantt charts, Johnson's rule and the Pareto principle
Q:
Which of the following best describes the strategic importance of short-term scheduling?
A) Effective scheduling, through lower costs, faster delivery, and dependable delivery, can provide a competitive advantage.
B) Effective scheduling is a tactical tool for increasing demand to meet production.
C) Forward scheduling looks to future demand levels in order to increase customer satisfaction.
D) Aggregate planning is a tactical action, but short-term scheduling is strategic because of its immense impact on costs.
E) Short-term scheduling matches capacity to demand during the short term, three to eighteen months into the future.
Q:
Which of the following statements regarding scheduling at Delta Airlines is false?
A) About one flight in twenty is disrupted by weather events.
B) Schedule changes at one airport have a ripple effect that may have impacts in many others.
C) Delta's high-tech computer and communications system is located in Atlanta.
D) Delta's rapid rescheduling uses mathematical scheduling models.
E) Delta's rapid rescheduling promotes air safety and limits traveler inconvenience, but has not resulted in money savings for Delta.
Q:
Some firms have developed arrangements to literally "swap" employees with each other during their respective peak demand times.
Q:
In manufacturing scheduling, physical inventories of goods can buffer variations in demand, but service scheduling normally lacks that buffer because services are generally consumed at the same time they are delivered.
Q:
Because of the significance of labor in the scheduling of services, behavioral and social issues, wage and hour law, and union contracts all complicate the scheduling process.
Q:
In services, the scheduling emphasis is usually on staffing levels, not materials.
Q:
The first step in level material use is to combine orders into a few large batches in order to utilize economies of scale.
Q:
The word "finite" in finite capacity scheduling refers to the use of finite or limited capacity rather than unlimited capacity.
Q:
Finite capacity scheduling allows virtually instantaneous changes by operators, which is the technique's primary advantage over rule-based scheduling.
Q:
Johnsons rule sequences a set of jobs through two different machines or work centers in the same order.
Q:
Dispatching rules are typically judged by four effectiveness criteria: average completion time, utilization, average number of jobs in the system, and average job lateness.
Q:
The critical ratio sequencing rule prioritizes the jobs based on the importance or value of the customers who have placed the orders.
Q:
Earliest due date is a shop floor dispatching (sequencing) rule that relates the time available to complete a job to the amount of work left to be completed.
Q:
The assignment method provides an optimum, one-to-one assignment of jobs to resources.
Q:
Gantt charts are useful for scheduling jobs, but not for loading them.
Q:
A Gantt load chart shows the loading and idle time of several departments, machines, or facilities.
Q:
The constant work-in-process (ConWIP) card aids input-output control by limiting the amount of work in a work center.
Q:
The work-center master file contains data such as capacity and efficiency.
Q:
Process-focused facilities and repetitive facilities generate forward-looking schedules, but process-focused facilities do this with JIT and kanban while repetitive facilities generally use MRP.
Q:
Scheduling optimization systems used in retail stores typically track customer traffic in 4-hour time increments.
Q:
One criterion for developing effective schedules is minimizing completion time.
Q:
In forward scheduling, jobs are scheduled as late as possible within the time allowed by the customer due dates.
Q:
The benefits of effective scheduling include lower cost, faster delivery, and dependable delivery.
Q:
Short-term scheduling is important to efficiency and to cost reduction, but its impact is not of strategic importance.
Q:
Delta uses mathematical short-term scheduling techniques and a high-tech nerve center to manage the rapid rescheduling necessary to cope with weather delays and similar disruptions.
Q:
Enterprise resource planning (ERP)
A) seldom requires software upgrade or enhancement
B) does not integrate well with functional areas other than operations
C) is inexpensive to implement
D) automates and integrates the majority of business processes
E) all of the above
Q:
By convention, the top level in a bill of material is
A) level 0
B) level 1
C) level T
D) level 10
E) level 100
Q:
Distribution resource planning (DRP) is
A) a transportation plan to ship materials to warehouses
B) a time-phased stock replenishment plan for all levels of a distribution network
C) a shipping plan from a central warehouse to retail warehouses
D) material requirements planning with feedback loop from distribution centers
E) a material requirements planning package used exclusively by warehouses
Q:
Which of the following statements regarding MRP in services is true?
A) MRP is for manufacturing only, and is not applicable to services.
B) MRP can be used in services, but only those that offer very limited customization.
C) MRP does not work in services because there is no dependent demand.
D) Services such as restaurant meals illustrate dependent demand, and require product structure trees, bills-of-material, and scheduling.
E) None of the above is true.
Q:
The extension of MRP which extends to resources such as labor hours and machine hours, as well as to order entry, purchasing, and direct interface with customers and suppliers is
A) MRP II
B) enterprise resource planning
C) the master production schedule
D) closed-loop MRP
E) not yet technically possible
Q:
MRP II is accurately described as
A) MRP software designed for services
B) MRP with a new set of computer programs that execute on microcomputers
C) MRP augmented by other resource variables
D) an enhancement of MRP that plans for all levels of the supply chain
E) a new generation of MRP software that extends MRP to planning and scheduling functions
Q:
If a load report (resource requirements profile) shows a work center scheduled beyond capacity
A) the company must add capacity by enlarging the facility
B) the company must add capacity by such tactics as overtime and subcontracting
C) the work center's load may be smoothed by such tactics as operations splitting or lot splitting
D) the aggregate plan must be revised
E) the Wagner-Whitin algorithm should be used to rebalance the load
Q:
Capacity planning in closed-loop MRP
A) utilizes feedback about workload from each work center
B) may make use of resource requirements profiles (load reports)
C) may smooth work center loads with such tactics as overlapping and lot splitting
D) does not add capacity, but rather seeks effective use of existing capacity
E) All of the above are true.
Q:
A firm makes numerous models of mowers, garden tractors, and gasoline powered utility vehicles. Some assemblies and parts are common to many end items. To relieve the MPS of performing order releases on these common parts, the firm might choose to use the __________ technique.
A) Wagner-Whitin
B) economic part period
C) supermarket
D) gross material requirements
E) resource requirements profile
Q:
Which of the following statements regarding lot-sizing is true?
A) EOQ principles should be followed whenever economical.
B) Too much concern with lot-sizing results in false accuracy.
C) Lot-for-lot cannot be modified for scrap allowance or process constraints.
D) The Wagner-Whitin algorithm simplifies lot size calculations.
E) All of the above are true.
Q:
An item's holding cost is 60 cents per week. Each setup costs $120. Lead time is 2 weeks. EPP is
A) .005
B) 60
C) 72
D) 100
E) 200
Q:
For the lot-sizing technique known as lot-for-lot to be appropriate
A) future demand should be known for several weeks
B) setup cost should be relatively small
C) annual volume should be rather low
D) item unit cost should be relatively small
E) the independent demand rate should be very stable
Q:
What lot-sizing technique is generally preferred when inventory holding costs are extremely high?
A) lot-for-lot
B) EOQ
C) part-period balancing
D) the Wagner-Whitin algorithm
E) All of the above are appropriate for the situation.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about the MRP plan when using lot-for-lot ordering?
A) The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is always equal to the quantity of planned order releases for its parent.
B) The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is equal to the quantity of planned order release(s) multiplied by the number of child items used in the parent assembly.
C) The quantity of gross requirements for a child item is always equal to the quantity of gross requirements for its parent.
D) The quantity and gross requirements for a child item is always equal to the quantity of net requirements for its parent.
E) All of the above are true.
Q:
Which of the following lot-sizing techniques results in the lowest holding costs?
A) lot-for-lot
B) EOQ
C) part-period balancing
D) Wagner-Whitin algorithm
E) the quantity discount model
Q:
Which of the following best differentiates material requirements planning (MRP) from finite capacity scheduling (FCS)?
A) FCS recognizes the finite nature of capacity while MRP does not.
B) FCS works in services while MRP does not.
C) MRP requires time buckets while FCS does not.
D) FCS is an input into traditional MRP systems.
E) FCS uses the Wagner-Whitin algorithm while MRP uses lot-for-lot and EOQ.
Q:
Material requirements plans specify
A) the quantities of the product families that need to be produced
B) the quantity and timing of planned order releases
C) the capacity needed to provide the projected output rate
D) the costs associated with alternative plans
E) whether one should use phantom bills of material or not
Q:
Distortion in MRP systems can be minimized when safety stock is held at the
A) purchased component or raw material level
B) work-in-process level
C) finished goods level
D) A and B
E) A and C
Q:
Which of the following is a step towards integrating JIT and MRP according to the text?
A) smaller buckets
B) increase quality
C) scrap MRP, it does not work with JIT
D) migrate from MRP to ERP
E) All of the above are acceptable steps
Q:
One of the tools that is particularly useful in reducing the system nervousness in the MRP system is (are)
A) modular bills
B) time phasing
C) time fences
D) lot sizing
E) closed loop system
Q:
In MRP, system nervousness is caused by
A) management's attempt to continually respond to minor changes in production requirements
B) the use of the lot-for-lot approach
C) management's marking part of the master production schedule as "not to be rescheduled"
D) the use of phantom bills of material
E) management's attempt to evaluate alternative plans before making a decision
Q:
Linking a part requirement with the parent component that caused the requirement is referred to as
A) net requirements planning
B) a time fence
C) pegging
D) kanban
E) leveling
Q:
In MRP, the number of units projected to be available at the beginning of each time period refers to
A) net requirements
B) scheduled receipts
C) the projected usage of the item
D) the amount projected to be on hand
E) the amount necessary to cover a shortage
Q:
In MRP record calculations, the appearance of a negative value for the gross requirements of an end item in a specific time bucket
A) signals the need to purchase that end item in that period
B) implies that value was scheduled by the MPS
C) signals the need for a negative planned order receipt in that period
D) is impossible
E) All of the above are true.
Q:
The MPS calls for 110 units of Product A. There are currently 60 of Product A on hand. Each A requires 4 of Part B. There are 20 units of B available. The net requirements for B are
A) 20
B) 120
C) 180
D) 240
E) 440
Q:
The MPS calls for 50 units of Product A and 60 of B. There are currently 25 of Product B on hand. Each A requires 2 of Part C; each B requires 5 of C. There are 160 units of C available. The net requirements for C are
A) 115
B) 175
C) 240
D) 690
E) 700
Q:
The MPS calls for 110 units of Product M. There are currently 30 of Product M on hand. Each M requires 4 of Component N. There are 20 units of N on hand. The net requirements for N are
A) 150
B) 170
C) 300
D) 320
E) 440
Q:
Which of the following statements regarding the gross material requirements plan is true?
A) It shows total demand for an item.
B) It shows when an item must be ordered from a supplier or when production must be started.
C) It combines a master production schedule with the time-phased schedule.
D) It requires several inputs, including an accurate bill of material.
E) All of the above are true.
Q:
Which of the following best describes a gross material requirements plan?
A) a schedule that shows total demand for an item, and when it must be ordered from a supplier or when production must be started
B) an intermediate range plan for the scheduling of families of products
C) a chart illustrating whether capacity has been exceeded
D) a table that corrects scheduled quantities for inventory on hand
E) a schedule showing which products are to be manufactured and in what quantities
Q:
Each R requires 4 of component S; each S requires 3 of part T. The lead time for assembly of R is 1 week. The lead time for the manufacture of S is 2 weeks. The lead time for the procurement of T is 6 weeks. The cumulative lead time for R is __________ weeks.
A) 6
B) 9
C) 12
D) 18
E) 28
Q:
Each R requires 2 of component S and 1 of part T. The lead time for assembly of R is 3 days. The lead time for the manufacture of S is 5 days. The lead time for the manufacture of T is 10 days. The cumulative lead time for R is __________ days.
A) 6
B) 9
C) 13
D) 17
E) cannot be determined
Q:
A material requirements plan contains information with regard to all of the following except
A) quantities and required delivery dates of all subassemblies
B) quantities and required delivery dates of final products
C) the capacity needed to provide the projected output rate
D) inventory on hand for each final product
E) inventory on hand for each subassembly
Q:
Each X requires 2 of component Y; each Y requires 4 of part Z. The lead time for assembly of X is 1 week. The lead time for the manufacture of Y is 1 week. The lead time for the procurement of Z is 6 weeks. The cumulative lead time for X is __________ weeks.
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 10
E) cannot be determined
Q:
If safety stock is desired it should be built into which portion of MRP?
A) any
B) none
C) raw materials
D) finished assemblies
E) either C or D
Q:
It is week 1 and there are currently 20 As in stock. The MPS calls for 300 As at the start of week 5. If there are scheduled receipts planned for week 3 and week 4 of 120 As each and A has a lead time of 1 week when and how large of an order should be placed to meet the requirement of 300 As?
A) Week 1, 300 A s
B) Week 1, 40 A s
C) Week 5, 40 A s
D) Week 4, 40 A s
E) Week 4, 300 A s
Q:
Low level coding means that
A) a final item has only a few levels in the BOM structure
B) it is the code for the lowest level in the BOM structure
C) a component item is coded at the lowest level at which it appears in the BOM structure
D) the top level of the BOM is below level zero and that BOMs are not organized around the finished product
E) none of the above
Q:
Given the following bill of material If the demand for product A is 30 units, and there are 10 units of B on hand and none of C, how many units of part D will be needed?
A) 3
B) 40
C) 70
D) 90
E) 110
Q:
When safety stock is deemed absolutely necessary, the usual policy is to build it into which category of the MRP logic?
A) Gross Requirements
B) Scheduled Receipts
C) Projected On Hand
D) Net Requirements
E) Planned Order Receipts
Q:
Given the following bill of material If the demand for product A is 50 units, what will be the gross requirement for component E?
A) 50
B) 100
C) 150
D) 200
E) 300
Q:
Given the following bill of material If the demand for product A is 50 units, what will be the gross requirement for component E?
A) 4
B) 100
C) 200
D) 250
E) 300
Q:
The minimum record accuracy required for successful MRP is approximately
A) lower than 90%
B) 90%
C) 95%
D) 97%
E) 99%
Q:
A grill assembly takes 20 washers. Instead of listing these washers separately they are grouped into a single kit for production. The bill of material for the washers is classified as
A) "Pseudo"
B) Planning
C) Modular
D) Low-level
E) A and B
Q:
A paint company mixes ten different base colors into 3,000 different color options. If the MPS is organized around the ten different base colors their bills of material are classified as
A) Phantom
B) Planning
C) Modular
D) Low-Level
E) A and B
Q:
Which of the following statements best compares modular bills and phantom bills?
A) Both pertain to assemblies that are not inventoried.
B) There is no difference between the two.
C) Both pertain to assemblies that are inventoried.
D) Modular bills are used for assemblies that are not inventoried, unlike phantom bills.
E) Modular bills represent subassemblies that actually exist and are inventoried, while phantom bills represent subassemblies that exist only temporarily and are not inventoried.
Q:
The bill of material contains information necessary to
A) place an order to replenish the item
B) calculate quantities on hand and on order
C) convert net requirements into higher level gross requirements
D) convert gross requirements into net requirements
E) convert (explode) net requirements at one level into gross requirements at the next level
Q:
A bill of material must be updated with the corrected dimensions of a part. The document that details this change is a(n)
A) modular bill
B) engineering change notice
C) resource requirements profile
D) lead time-offset product structure document
E) planning bill
Q:
Firms making many different final products use __________ to facilitate production scheduling.
A) planning bills
B) modular bills
C) phantom bills
D) overdue bills
E) none of the above
Q:
An engineering change notice is used to change a(n)
A) MRP
B) MPS
C) ERP
D) BOM
E) none of the above
Q:
A bill of material lists the
A) times needed to perform all phases of production
B) production schedules for all products
C) components, ingredients, and materials required to produce an item
D) operations required to produce an item
E) components, ingredients, materials, and assembly operations required to produce an item