Q&A Hero

Q: The perception that a brand is different and better is: A) brand equity. B) brand parity. C) flanker branding. D) the private label advantage.

Q: Charles sees only minor differences among the various brands of high definition televisions. This is an example of: A) brand equity. B) brand parity. C) flanker branding. D) the private label problem.

Q: The perception that all brands are essentially the same is: A) brand equity. B) brand parity. C) flanker branding. D) the private label problem.

Q: When customers purchase only one brand and consider no other brand, regardless of price differences, which exists? A) brand involvement. B) brand specialty. C) brand loyalty. D) brand parity.

Q: Mobile advertising offers the following advantages, except: A) opportunity to interact with consumers. B) enhance the customer's experience. C) immediate feedback from customers. D) customization and personalization of ads.

Q: A customer's belief in the efficacy and reliability of a brand that has been established over time through personal experience is: A) brand competence. B) trust. C) reliability. D) distinctiveness.

Q: A primary feature that keeps a brand strong occurs when the brand contains something that is important to consumers is: A) diligence. B) acceptance. C) salience. D) divergence.

Q: The goal of branding is to: A) be able to charge a higher price than the competition. B) gain the largest market share. C) set a product apart from its competitors. D) have a trademark that is easily identifiable.

Q: The marketing of Velveeta Cheese with Rotel Tomatoes and Diced Green Chilies is an example of: A) ingredient branding. B) flanker branding. C) cooperative branding. D) complementary branding.

Q: An advertising campaign created by Hormel that was designed to show customers the rich variety of brands sold by the company was designed to: A) allow the company to charge more. B) create brand parity across company brands. C) create perceptions of corporate uniqueness. D) transfer perceptions of strong brands to other company products.

Q: Strong brands achieve the following except: A) allow a company to charge more for products. B) create brand parity. C) provide customers assurance of quality. D) transfer to other products or brands the company sells.

Q: What are the three forms of co-branding or alliance branding? Define each one.

Q: Describe the differences between brand extensions and flanker brands.

Q: Co-branding or alliance branding succeeds when it builds the brand equity of both brands involved.

Q: Ingredient branding is the joint venture of two or more brands into a new good or service.

Q: Placing Oreo cookies in Dairy Queen milk shakes is an example of a brand extension.

Q: Flanker branding is the placement of one brand within another, such as NutraSweet as part of Diet Coke.

Q: A flanker brand can be introduced when company leaders think that offering the product under the current brand name may adversely affect the overall marketing program.

Q: When Proctor & Gamble adds new laundry detergents to reach different market segments, the company has created flanker brands.

Q: A flanker brand is the use of a new brand name to identify a product marketed with another company.

Q: A brand extension is the use of a new brand name to identify an old product.

Q: A family brand relationship occurs when two companies produce one brand in a cooperative venture.

Q: Brands are names generally assigned to individual goods or services or to sets of products in a line.

Q: In terms of co-branding, the highest risk strategy is: A) ingredient branding. B) cooperative branding. C) complementary branding. D) flanker branding.

Q: The marketing of two or more brands together to encourage co-consumption or co-purchases is: A) ingredient branding. B) cooperative branding. C) complementary branding. D) flanker branding.

Q: The joint venture of two or more brands into a new good or service is: A) ingredient branding. B) cooperative branding. C) complementary branding. D) flanker branding.

Q: The placement of one brand within another brand is: A) ingredient branding. B) cooperative branding. C) complementary branding. D) flanker branding.

Q: A Pillsbury cookie mix featuring Hershey's Chocolate is a form of: A) flanker branding. B) cooperative branding. C) ingredient branding. D) complementary branding.

Q: Selling Reese's Peanut Butter Cup milkshakes at DQ is an example of: A) flanker branding. B) extension branding. C) cooperative branding. D) complementary branding.

Q: Complementary branding is: A) using a private label to complement the main brand. B) placing one brand within another brand. C) the joint venture of two or more brands in one product. D) marketing two brands together to encourage co-consumption.

Q: Alliance or co-branding works best when: A) the two brands are unrelated. B) a well-known brand is attached to a lesser-known brand. C) a private label is co-branded with a manufacturer's brand. D) it builds the brand equity of both brands.

Q: Cooperative branding is: A) private labeling with a major brand. B) placing one brand in another as a form of cooperation. C) the joint venture of two or more brands in one product. D) the marketing of two brands together to encourage co-consumption.

Q: Intel Pentium processors placed inside of computers is a form of: A) ingredient branding. B) flanker brand. C) cooperative branding. D) complementary branding.

Q: Ingredient branding involves: A) placing one brand within another. B) developing a new brand to be sold in a category where the firm already has a brand. C) a joint venture of two brands in one product. D) marketing two brands together to encourage co-consumption.

Q: Co-branding or alliance branding can take the following forms, except: A) flanker brand. B) ingredient brand. C) cooperative brand. D) complementary brand.

Q: A firm that is expanding to international markets often adds additional brands to current brands in order to strengthen an international presence, reflecting which strategy? A) Brand extension B) Private brand C) Flanker brand D) Complementary brand

Q: In introducing a new brand, which approach is often used by firms operating in high-end markets in order to avoid damaging the high-end brand's reputation? A) Brand extension B) Co-branding C) Flanker brand D) Complementary brand

Q: When a company's marketing team introduces a new brand within a product category where it already has brands in an effort to appeal to target markets the team believes is not being reached by the company's current brand, which is being used? A) Brand extension B) Private brand C) Flanker brand D) Complementary brand

Q: When a company develops a new brand in the same category in which the firm already has a branded product, it is a: A) brand extension. B) private brand. C) flanker brand. D) complementary brand.

Q: Which involves using an established brand name on goods or services that are not related to the core brand? A) Brand extension B) Private brand C) Flanker brand D) Complementary brand

Q: If a company's marketing team believes that offering a new product under the current brand name may adversely affect the current brand, the best approach would be to introduce the product as a: A) brand extension. B) ingredient brand. C) flanker brand. D) co-brand.

Q: When Procter & Gamble added a new laundry detergent in Asia called "Panda" to its current line of laundry detergents, the Panda brand would be considered a: A) brand extension. B) family brand. C) flanker brand. D) complementary brand.

Q: When Procter & Gamble introduces a new laundry detergent with a different brand name, it is an example of creating a(n): A) family brand. B) cooperative brand. C) co-brand. D) flanker brand.

Q: Which of the following is a flanker brand? A) The offering of two or more brands in a single marketing offer B) The joint venture of two or more brands into a new product or service C) Development of a new brand by a company in a good or service category where it currently has other brands D) A brand with the same name in a different industry

Q: Nike creating a line of clothing to go along with their main products (shoes) is an example of a: A) flanker brand. B) brand extension. C) cooperative brand. D) complementary brand.

Q: A brand extension is: A) a group of related core products sold under one name. B) the creation of a logo which further explains the brand. C) the design of a public relations campaign to support a brand. D) using an established brand name on goods or services not related to the core brand.

Q: When Black & Decker introduced a new form of wrench with the name "Black & Decker Adjustable Wrench," which was being used? A) family brand B) cooperative brand C) flanker brand D) complementary brand

Q: Black & Decker's line of power tools is an example of a(n): A) adaptation. B) family brand. C) flanker brand. D) private label brand.

Q: A family brand is: A) one in which a company offers a series or group of products under one brand name. B) a type of extension or flanker brand offered by one company. C) a logo or theme of a brand. D) one that has a high level of brand equity.

Q: Names assigned to individual goods or services or to groups of products in a line are: A) brands. B) logos. C) metrics. D) designs.

Q: What four tests should quality logos and brand names pass?

Q: Nike's "Swoosh" logo had a natural relationship with the company's products, and therefore did not require extensive advertising to embed the logo in consumers' minds.

Q: Quality logos and brand names should be easily recognizable, and evoke positive feelings.

Q: The notion that a logo can elicit a consensual meaning among customers is known as logo congruence.

Q: Quality brand logos should be easily recognizable and elicit a consensual meaning among those in the target market.

Q: The Nike swoosh is an example of a(n): A) brand. B) package. C) label. D) logo.

Q: Quality logos and brand names should pass each of the following tests, except: A) be similar to others in the industry. B) be familiar. C) elicit a consensual meaning among those in the firm's target market. D) evoke positive feelings.

Q: Brand logos: A) are unrelated to image but are related to positioning. B) help with recall of advertisements and brands. C) usually are inexpensive to develop. D) increase search time in product purchase decisions.

Q: A logo with a consensually held meaning, such as the Prudential Rock, displays: A) brand prominence. B) stimulus codability. C) brand parity. D) product positioning.

Q: McDonald's arches create shared meaning across consumers in the United States and around the world, which means the arches exhibit: A) duality. B) stimulus codability. C) brand endurance. D) brand equity.

Q: When a logo elicits shared meanings across consumers, it exhibits: A) stimulus codability. B) reliability. C) consensus. D) referent response.

Q: The symbol used to identify a brand is a(n): A) trademark. B) patent. C) icon. D) logo.

Q: Stimulus codability is: A) a form of brand name. B) the perception that the brand is known. C) consensually held meanings among customers. D) another name for product positioning.

Q: Logos help with in-store shopping because: A) they are more readily recognized by shoppers. B) they move traffic past goods which are not being purchased. C) they are a form of clutter. D) consumers have made up their minds prior to arrival.

Q: What are the four types of brand names?

Q: Conceptual and implied brand names require a greater marketing effort to ensure consumers connect the brand name with the product being sold.

Q: FedEx is an example of a conceptual brand name seeking to suggest the idea of express delivery.

Q: A conceptual brand name seeks to capture the essence of the idea behind the brand or a vision of what the company does.

Q: Google is an example of an implied brand name.

Q: An implied brand name contains recognizable words or word parts that suggest what the company does.

Q: Krispy Kreme is an example of an overt brand name.

Q: A conceptual brand name captures the essence of what a company offers, but does not reveal it directly.

Q: An implied brand name reveals what the company does.

Q: Iconoclastic brand names: A) reveal what the brand does. B) capture the essence of the idea behind the brand. C) contain recognizable words or word parts that imply what the brand is about. D) do not reflect the brand's goods or services, but instead something that is unique, different, and memorable.

Q: Conceptual brand names: A) capture the essence of the idea behind the brand. B) contain recognizable words or word parts that imply what the brand is about. C) do not reflect the brand's goods or services, but instead something that is unique, different, and memorable. D) reveal what the brand does.

Q: Implied brand names: A) reveal what the brand does. B) capture the essence of the idea behind the brand. C) contain recognizable words or word parts that imply what the brand is about. D) do not reflect the brand, but instead something that is unique, different, and memorable.

Q: Overt brand names: A) reveal what the brand does. B) capture the essence of the idea behind the brand. C) contain recognizable words or word parts that imply what the brand is about. D) do not reflect the brand's goods or services, but instead something that is unique, different, and memorable.

Q: Monster.com is an example of a(n): A) overt name. B) implied name. C) conceptual name. D) iconoclastic name.

Q: Which type of brand name is unique, different, and memorable without suggesting the company's goods or services? A) Overt B) Implied C) Conceptual D) Iconoclastic

Q: Which type of brand name does not reflect the company's goods or services? A) Overt B) Implied C) Conceptual D) Iconoclastic