Q&A Hero

Q: Manufacturers are using the following methods to respond to inroads made by private labels, except: A) focusing on a few core brands. B) increasing advertising expenditures. C) introducing new products and new versions of current products. D) reducing prices to meet private label pricing.

Q: The following statements about private labels are true, except: A) quality levels of many private label products have improved. B) prices for private labels are going up in many markets. C) consumers still perceive private labels as being inferior to manufacturer's brands. D) some firms have begun advertising private labels.

Q: Private labels are attractive to retail stores because: A) they are priced higher than national brands. B) they do not require any advertising. C) they tend to have higher margins than national brands. D) consumers are becoming more loyal to private brands.

Q: Over the past few years, each of the following are changes that have occurred in the area of private branding, except: A) increase in prices to equal national brands. B) improved quality. C) increased advertising of private brands. D) increased quality of in-store displays of private brands.

Q: Private brands are: A) new brands sold in the same category. B) the joint venture of two or more brands in a new good or service. C) the use of established brand names on goods and services not related to the company's core brand. D) proprietary brands marketed by an organization and normally distributed exclusively within the organization's outlets.

Q: A proprietary brand marketed by an organization and distributed within the organization's outlets is a(n): A) private label. B) flanker brand. C) co-brand. D) complementary brand.

Q: Identify the steps in building a high level of brand equity.

Q: When developing a strong brand name, what are some typical questions that should be asked?

Q: Although brand equity can be measured using various metrics, CEOs and other corporate leaders often want real, hard numbers.

Q: The revenue premium and stock market methods of estimating brand equity attempts to measure the value of a brand based on input from consumers through measures such as familiarity, quality, purchase considerations, customer satisfaction, and willingness to seek out the brand.

Q: The revenue premium method of estimating brand equity attempts to measure the value of a brand based on input from consumers through measures such as familiarity, quality, purchase considerations, customer satisfaction, and willingness to seek out the brand.

Q: The revenue premium approach to estimating brand equity compares a branded product to the same product without a brand name, such as a private label brand.

Q: The revenue premium approach to estimate brand equity involves determining the financial value of the company through stock valuation with an estimate of the portion of the value allocated to brand equity and not physical assets.

Q: The stock market approach to estimate brand equity involves determining the financial value of the company through stock valuation with an estimate of the portion of the value allocated to brand equity and not physical assets.

Q: Brand equity using the stock market value method estimates the future cash flows of a brand based on its unique strengths that are then discounted to determine a net present value.

Q: Measuring brand equity using the financial value method estimates the future cash flows of a brand based on its unique strength and characteristics, which will then be discounted to determine a net present value.

Q: Brand metrics measure the impact of advertising on a brand's image.

Q: Brand parity is a strong weapon that might dissuade consumers from looking for a cheaper product or for special deals or incentives to purchase other brands.

Q: Brand equity is not as important in international markets because fewer brands are available.

Q: Brand equity is not as important in business-to-business markets because pricing is typically the primary decision variable.

Q: Brand equity is a set of characteristics that are unique to a brand that make it seem different and better.

Q: Brand equity is the perception that most brands within a product category are relatively similar or have no distinct differences.

Q: Brand parity is the perception that there are significant differences among brands within a product category.

Q: A recent trend in brand building has been to incorporate social media.

Q: Social media does not play a role in brand building because it involves consumers interacting with each other.

Q: Define GIMC. Why is GIMC important?

Q: The GIMC approach is easier to apply when a company relies on the adaptation strategy for its global expansion.

Q: Standardization would be an effective GIMC tactic in the Middle East because of the variety of religions and cultures.

Q: Adaptation in a global advertising campaign means rewriting an advertisement to fit the nuances of a given language and culture.

Q: An example of adaptation in global marketing communications is: A) Ford using the same advertising campaign theme in all of its global markets. B) not selling the McRib sandwich in Israel because it violates religious practices. C) printing ads only in English for European countries. D) using direct mail.

Q: In terms of globally integrated marketing communications, adaptation is: A) not used in international environments. B) a form of e-commerce. C) advertising in unusual media. D) adjusting a message to local conditions.

Q: An example of standardization is: A) Pepsi using the same theme in all of its global markets. B) using women with their faces covered in ads for Islamic countries. C) developing a website in several languages. D) using local salespeople in a global market.

Q: Coca-Cola runs the same advertisement in all French-speaking countries. This is an example of: A) diversified IMC theme. B) standardization. C) customization. D) integration.

Q: In terms of marketing communications, standardization is: A) presenting the same message across national boundaries. B) a form of adaptation. C) new product development. D) a new form of the promotions mix.

Q: GIMC stands for: A) Globally Integrated Marketing Communications. B) Global and Institutional Marketing Concepts. C) Generic and Institutionalized Marketing Creations. D) Generating Ideas for Marketing Control.

Q: Consumer promotions include incentives, vendor support programs, and other fees and discounts that help the manufacturer push the product through the channel.

Q: Advertising campaign management identifies the general direction the company will take with its social media.

Q: Packaging and labeling products are part of the brand's digital marketing program.

Q: Promotions that are oriented to end users and include coupons, contests, premiums, refunds, rebates, free samples, and price-off offers are: A) consumer promotions. B) rebate programs. C) direct marketing programs. D) trade promotions.

Q: Promotions that help the manufacturer push the product through the channel are: A) consumer promotions. B) rebate programs. C) direct marketing programs. D) trade promotions.

Q: The term "alternative marketing" includes all of the following except: A) buzz marketing. B) social networks and blogs. C) guerrilla marketing. D) product placement.

Q: The leading social media platform currently is: A) Twitter. B) YouTube. C) Facebook. D) Instagram.

Q: Traditional media channels include all of the following except: A) television. B) radio. C) outdoor. D) internet.

Q: The two types of buyer behaviors that the marketing team must understand are business-to-business behaviors and: A) local community activities. B) governmental purchase. C) consumer buyer behaviors. D) competitive actions.

Q: The foundation of an IMC program consists of a careful review of all of the following except: A) economic conditions. B) a company's image. C) the markets in which buyers are located. D) the buyers to be served.

Q: Describe contact points.

Q: Describe brand parity.

Q: What recent trends make an IMC approach valuable to companies in the marketplace?

Q: A contact point is any point where consumers interact with a company or acquire information about a company.

Q: In the past, Bruce bought Kleenex brand tissues, but he has now decided that all tissue brands are pretty much the same. This is an example of brand parity.

Q: Brand parity is the belief that multiple brands consist of or offer the same set of attributes and benefits and are perceived to be of equal quality.

Q: One new marketing challenge is that consumers can now purchase goods and services from anywhere in the world, which is an example of increased global competition.

Q: Susan researched the internet for information about the best brands of stereos. She has also visited the Best Buy retail store. This is an example of retailers having more channel power.

Q: The advancement of the internet and information technology has caused some market channel power shift to consumers.

Q: Retailers strive to maintain channel power by controlling shelf space, packaging, prices and purchase data.

Q: In terms of integration of media platforms, social spider-webbing occurs when consumers share content or information across multiple devices.

Q: In terms of integration of media platforms, investigative spider-webbing involves looking at two or more screens simultaneously to access content that is not related.

Q: Consumers still spend more time, on the average, watching television than they do in front of other types of screens, such as tablets and computers.

Q: The explosion of digital media has led many companies to shift media expenditures from traditional media to social media.

Q: Internet-based communications have evolved from web advertisements to interactive websites, blogs, and social media.

Q: Forces that impact the field of marketing communication are the emergence of social media and the internet.

Q: Television is becoming a more effective mass media outlet for advertising because so many more people own TV sets and have access to cable as well as satellite.

Q: The push for accountability is being driven by chief executive officers, brand managers, creatives, and account managers.

Q: A brand's website, store display, and advertisements are examples of: A) contact points. B) marketing plans. C) promotional programs. D) marketing objectives.

Q: All of the following are examples of customer contact points except: A) a brand's website. B) a friend who recommends a brand. C) a brand's Instagram page. D) a sales clerk at a retail store.

Q: A contact point is: A) the place where a marketer reaches the production team. B) the place where the product is packaged or sold. C) a description of the effects of an advertisement. D) a place where consumers interact with a company.

Q: To combat brand parity, the marketing team at a company such as Johnson & Johnson might claim it: A) is developing additional products. B) has found new customers to buy products. C) has new locations. D) sells superior products.

Q: When brand parity exists, consumers base purchases on: A) advertising effectiveness, social media comments, and brand equity. B) retail store location, price, and coupon or discount offer. C) price, availability, promotions or other criteria. D) information found on the internet or on social media.

Q: Michael buys electronic items from the closest retail store because he doesn't think there is much of a difference between brands. This is an example of: A) a poor quality IMC program. B) standardization. C) marketing integration. D) brand parity.

Q: Brand parity is the: A) perception that there are no real differences between major brands. B) feeling that most advertising is false. C) belief that all advertisers say essentially the same thing. D) idea that brands are distinct and easy to identify.

Q: The competitive environment is now more: A) local. B) global. C) concentrated. D) regionalized.

Q: Buying online from Amazon.com rather than a brick-and-mortar store is an example of: A) a power shift to the consumer. B) a power shift to the producer. C) a decline in the effectiveness of mass media. D) a new form of wholesaling.

Q: Many marketing experts feel the advancement of the internet and information technology has caused a shift in channel power: A) from producers to wholesalers. B) away from manufacturers. C) from retailers to wholesalers. D) to consumers.

Q: Because retailers control shelf purchase and have access to purchase data, retailers determine: A) what products and brands are placed on stores shelves. B) what marketing tools manufacturers use. C) who has the power in the distribution channel. D) what products manufacturers produce.

Q: In terms of integration of media platforms, focusing on completing a task such as looking up a retail store online then using a mobile app to locate the store while driving to it is: A) content grazing. B) investigative spider-webbing. C) social spider-webbing. D) quantum journey.

Q: Shantell just posted a picture of herself on the beach in Florida to Facebook. She immediately sent a text to her dad and sister to check it out. In terms of integration of media platforms this illustrates: A) content grazing. B) investigative spider-webbing. C) social spider-webbing. D) quantum journey.

Q: John is watching a baseball game and accesses the internet to look up stats for one of the players. In terms of integration of media platforms this illustrates: A) content grazing. B) investigative spider-webbing. C) social spider-webbing. D) quantum journey.

Q: In terms of integration of media platforms, looking at two or more screens simultaneously to access content that is not related is: A) content grazing. B) investigative spider-webbing. C) social spider-webbing. D) quantum journey.

Q: Digital marketing seeks to: A) reach consumers when they are not busy. B) replace television as the primary method of advertising. C) create experiences with a brand rather than mere purchases with little or no emotion. D) decrease the level of brand parity through interactive advertising.

Q: Kraft Foods has cut traditional advertising dollars and shifted the money to digital media. This illustrates the emerging trend of: A) emphasis on customer engagement. B) increases in perception of brand parity. C) explosion of digital media. D) integration of media platforms.