Q&A Hero

Q: U.S. foreign policy toward North Korea is largely driven by its __________ ambition.

Q: If a state wanted to increase its influence in the presidential nomination, what could the state do? a. control media access to campaign events b. frontload the primaries c. mandate candidate debates in the state d. switch to a caucus system e. use a winner-take-all system

Q: A form of journalism, popular in the late nineteenth century, featuring pictures, comics, color, and sensationalized, oversimplified news coverage was called __________. a. muckraking b. popular journalism c. penny journalism d. blue dog journalism e. yellow journalism

Q: A divided government is when the president and the majority in one or both chambers of Congress belong to different parties.

Q: What was the primary focus at the 1848 Seneca Falls Convention for activists like Elizabeth Cady Stanton, Susan B. Anthony, and Lucretia Mott? a. the prohibition of alcohol b. women's rights c. rights for former slaves d. ending the Civil War e. the New Deal

Q: The Supremacy Clause establishes that state laws will prevail over conflicting federal laws.

Q: Terrorism is a technique used to effect political change by instilling __________ among the general public.

Q: As shown in Figure 12.1, which shows how PACs allocate their campaign contributions, if you are challenging an incumbent and looking for PAC money to support your campaign, you can expect to receive __________. a. significantly less money than if you were an incumbent b. significantly more money as a challenger than as an incumbent c. about the same money as an incumbent d. more money if you are a Republican e. more money if you are running for president

Q: When is a child's peer group most politically influential? a. when the child enters preschool b. when the child enters early elementary school c. when the child enters late elementary school d. when the child enters middle school or high school e. when the child leaves high school

Q: When a bill is sent to Congress, the president is not allowed to encourage specific members of Congress to vote for the bill.

Q: In the first civil rights movement, the abolitionist movement and the early women's movement were tied together. When did this movement take place? a. in the Progressive era b. during the Civil War c. during Reconstruction d. in the early 1800s e. in the early 1900s

Q: All of the powers of the federal government are expressly enumerated in the Constitution.

Q: The Cold War strategy of __________ was intended to prevent nuclear warfare by having a large enough nuclear arsenal that the Soviet Union would not dare challenge the United States.

Q: If you are competing for your party's nomination for office, you must first participate in a(n) __________. a. initiative election b. caucus election c. leadership election d. primary election e. referendum election

Q: Of the following, which is considered a demographic characteristic? a. employability b. gender c. history d. intelligence e. security

Q: The president may grant pardons to anyone convicted of a federal crime for any reason.

Q: Which of these does the Civil Rights Act of 1964 ban? a. poll taxes and grandfather clauses b. discrimination in public accommodations c. integration in public transportation d. discrimination based on sexual orientation e. nonviolent direct action

Q: In a unitary system of government, the state and local governments derive their powers from a centralized national government.

Q: The __________ has primary responsibility for foreign, military, and defense policy in the United States.

Q: Front-loading benefits __________. a. challengers b. front runners c. incumbents d. third parties e. special interests

Q: The __________ is a measure of the accuracy of a public opinion poll. a. inaccuracy rate b. margin of error c. modal response d. sample size e. standard deviation

Q: The Senate must approve the president's appointments to leadership positions in the fifteen Cabinet departments.

Q: In spite of the Equal Pay Act of 1963, women in the early twenty-first century still earn less than men, which led President Barack Obama to sign which of the following? a. the Elizabeth Cady Stanton Act b. Title IX c. the Susan B. Anthony Act d. the Civil Rights Act of 2009 e. the Lilly Ledbetter Act

Q: The United States has always had a federal system of government.

Q: The __________ is the international organization created after World War II to promote global peace and security.

Q: If you were running a general election campaign, at what point in the campaign would you want to recruit extra volunteers for canvassing? a. during the nomination period b. just before your state's primary c. during the summer before the election d. for the period one month before the election e. on election day

Q: Polls may be inaccurate for a number of reasons. Which of the following is one of those reasons? a. Polls measure only elite opinion. b. Polls are unable to measure the intensity of feelings about issues. c. Polls contain far too many errors to be deemed reliable. d. Polls have too many respondent options in which to register opinions. e. Polls have yet to perfect the sampling process.

Q: Why was the War Powers Resolution (1973) adopted by Congress? a. to expand the powers of the president in the conduct of war b. to limit the powers of the military-industrial complex in influencing foreign policy c. to reinvigorate the role of Congress in the conduct of war d. to empower the president to act unilaterally when American troops are in harm's way e. to make Congress the sole actor in the conduct of war

Q: What was the objective of the women's suffrage movement? a. the right to an abortion b. the right to own property c. equal pay for equal worth d. the right to vote e. broad gender equality

Q: Which of the following did Dred Scott v.Sanford address in terms of states' rights? a. education b. health care c. slavery d. voting e. transportation

Q: During President George W. Bush's 2002 State of the Union Address, President Bush identified Iraq, North Korea, and Iran as an "__________."

Q: If you wanted to have the most informed voters during a party nomination, you would use which nomination system? a. caucus b. collegian c. primary d. proportional e. retrospective

Q: Researchers refer to the unintended influence of the questioner on respondents during in-person interviews as what? a. interviewee bias b. interviewee influence c. interviewer bias d. interviewer corruption e. interviewer influence

Q: Why was the Twenty-Fifth Amendment to the Constitution adopted? a. to clear up ambiguities over the constitutional provisions surrounding presidential powers to conduct war b. to clear up ambiguities over the constitutional provisions surrounding the role of the vice president should the president die or become incapacitated c. to clear up ambiguities over the constitutional provisions surrounding the president's powers to negotiate treaties d. to clear up ambiguities over the constitutional provisions surrounding the separate election of the vice president e. to clear up ambiguities over the constitutional provisions surrounding the separation of powers between the executive branch and the legislative branch

Q: The Fifteenth Amendment guarantees citizens the right to vote regardless of __________. a. race b. gender c. age d. property ownership e. involvement in insurrection

Q: The power to regulate immigration is best described as a(n) __________ power. a. concurrent b. enumerated c. implied d. limited e. reserved

Q: The __________ was the U.S. effort to help rebuild Western Europe after World War II.

Q: Suppose you are a candidate and you want to re-craft your campaign message. With which of the following staff members would you MOST likely work closely to create a compelling and effective message? a. communications director b. press secretary c. volunteers d. finance chair e. Internet team

Q: Unscientific surveys used to gauge public opinion on a variety of issues are known as what? a. deliberative polls b. exit polls c. push polls d. straw polls e. tracking polls

Q: Which of the following statements provides the best characterization of the members of the White House staff? a. The White House staff is a loose collection of bureaucrats who are loyal to executive agencies. b. The White House staff is composed of individuals personally and politically close to the president chosen specifically to serve the president's needs. c. The White House staff is composed of policy specialists who have little personal loyalty to the president. d. The White House staff is the link between executive agencies in the bureaucracy and Congress. e. The White House staff advises members of the Cabinet on how best to serve the needs of president.

Q: The provision of the Fourteenth Amendment that prohibits any state from denying "any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws" is known as the __________ clause. a. due process b. jurisdiction c. grandfather d. equal protection e. privileges and immunities

Q: Which of the following is an example of a categorical grant? a. Funds provided by Congress to the states for education generally. b. Funds provided by Congress to the states for substance abuse prevention. c. Funds provided by Congress to the states for transportation infrastructure. d. Funds provided by Congress to the states to enhance science instruction in a low-income area. e. Funds provided by Congress to the states to promote the physical health of citizens.

Q: The Department of __________, developed after World War II, is the chief executive branch department responsible for formulation and implementation of U.S. military policy.

Q: If you wanted to improve voter turnout, which of the following would you suggest? a. holding elections more frequently b. removing the Electoral College in favor of a direct vote c. moving toward a system of national nominating caucuses d. turning Election Day into a national holiday e. using earlier registration deadlines

Q: Who is considered the founder of modern-day polling? a. George Gallup b. William E. Harris c. Alfred M. Landon d. Walter Lippmann e. John Zogby

Q: How does the White House staff differ from the president's Cabinet? a. The White House staff has greater access to and more influence on the president than the Cabinet. b. The Cabinet has more access to the president than the White House staff. c. The president can fire the White House staff but only Congress can dismiss a member of the Cabinet. d. The Cabinet is less democratic and less accountable than the White House staff. e. The White House staff has less specialized policy knowledge than the Cabinet.

Q: The Fourteenth Amendment attempted to guarantee which of the following to former slaves? a. forty acres of farmland and a mule b. free university education c. economic equality with whites d. citizenship rights e. debt forgiveness

Q: Proponents of the "devolution revolution" argue that __________. a. the authority of the military should be expanded b. the authority of state governments should be expanded c. the authority of the federal government should be expanded d. the authority of the president should be expanded e. the authority of Congress should be expanded

Q: After World War II, the United States, Canada, and Western Europe formed a peacetime alliance known as the __________.

Q: How does the institutional weakness of political parties affect voter turnout? a. parties can only use grassroots mobilizing to get voters to the polls b. parties do not have the staff to work at polling stations c. voters are distant from and do not identify with weak parties d. parties are subject to capture by special interests e. parties do not have money to buy media ads to mobilize voters

Q: Compare judicial restraint, judicial activism, and strict constructionist philosophies.

Q: What distinguishes modern presidents from early presidents? a. Modern presidents are much more liberal than early presidents. b. Modern presidents are much less active in the formulation of policy than early presidents. c. Modern presidents are much more active in the formulation of policy than early presidents. d. Modern presidents are much less prone to engage in international conflicts than early presidents. e. Modern presidents are much more conservative than early presidents.

Q: The Thirteenth Amendment bans slavery. When was it passed? a. when the South seceded from the Union b. during the Civil War c. immediately after the Civil War d. immediately after Reconstruction e. during the civil rights movement

Q: Which best describes the event or events that sealed the fate of the system of dual federalism in the United States? a. Congress approved the very unpopular Alien and Sedition Acts in 1798. b. The Supreme Court ruled that Dred Scott was not a citizen of the United States. c. The Sixteenth and Seventeenth Amendments were ratified and economic events led up to the Great Depression. d. The national government enacted a tariff act, most commonly referred to as the "Tariff of Abominations in 1828. e. Toward the end of the nineteenth century, the Sherman Anti-Trust Act allowed Congress to establish itself as the supreme player in a growing national economy.

Q: If Congress does not like the way the president is executing foreign policy, Congress can refuse to appropriate money for the president's policies.

Q: Which of the following is one strategy that campaigns use to control the media? a. making the candidate more available to the press b. staging media events c. ignoring negative campaign events d. appearing on the major networks' nightly news shows e. holding unrehearsed, spontaneous press conferences

Q: Explain the significance of Marbury v.Madison.

Q: What was the turning point that gave rise to the modern institutional presidency? a. the social strife arising from the civil rights movement b. the economic and social turmoil of the Great Depression c. the demands of managing a modern army during World War I d. the rise and importance of television as a mechanism that brought the president into the living rooms of American citizens e. the rapid contraction of government following the conclusion of World War II

Q: What was the dominant form of federalism in the 1920s? a. dual b. combined c. competitive d. cooperative e. progressive

Q: The failure of the U.S. government to notice the developing threat to American interests posed by a new terrorist organization would suggest that the intelligence community is not doing a good job.

Q: Why is redistricting an issue for incumbents? a. It means fewer people can donate to their reelection campaign. b. It can pit an incumbent against another incumbent in the next election cycle. c. It mandates that every ten years members of Congress have to switch districts. d. It means that incumbents have to move when their district changes. e. It necessitates a new and expensive media campaign in the next election cycle.

Q: Compare and contrast judicial restraint and judicial activism by analyzing how a proponent of each would have decided Brown v.Board of Education.

Q: What distinguishes the modern presidency from the institution originally envisioned by the Framers of the Constitution? a. The modern presidency has become the central focus of American politics since the 1930s, supplanting Congress as the "first branch" of government. b. The modern presidency is less involved in the development of foreign policy than the Framers intended. c. Modern presidents exhibit a greater level of deference to Congress in budgetary matters than the Framers intended. d. Modern presidents are much less democratic than the Framers intended. e. Modern presidents are more cautious in advocating for their legislative agendas than the Framers intended.

Q: Which part of the Constitution contains limitations on state powers? a. Article I, Section 2 b. Article I, Section 10 c. Article IV, Section 1 d. Article IV, Section 3 e. Article VI

Q: Barack Obama's approach to U.S. foreign policy is best described as isolationist.

Q: Which of the following is characteristic of negative ads? a. They attack only an opponent's positions, never his or her character. b. They most frequently compare and contrast candidates' issue positions. c. They are on the decline as a whole. d. They are almost always successful with the electorate. e. They sometimes do not even mention the sponsor of the ads.

Q: What would be the most likely consequence if courts did not have the power of judicial review?

Q: Based on what you know about election history, what is the most likely reason Senator John McCain chose Governor Sarah Palin as his running mate in 2008? a. Palin appealed to a younger demographic. b. Palin balanced McCain's lack of experience. c. Palin was more conservative than McCain. d. Palin appealed to urban working mothers. e. No other candidate had been from Alaska.

Q: Which is an example of an unfunded mandate? a. Congress passes a law requiring all nuclear power plants to revise and strengthen their safety protocols. b. Congress passes a law requiring all states to adopt a sex offender registry system categorizing offenders based on conviction, not future threat. c. The Environmental Protection Agency sends money to Louisiana to help with cleanup from the gulf oil spill. d. The Nevada legislature passes a law requiring all public school teachers to spend twenty hours per week preparing students for the state achievement test. e. The Supreme Court upholds a federal law requiring all citizens to wear a seatbelt while operating a motor vehicle.

Q: The recent wars in Afghanistan and Iraq were quick and decisive military and diplomatic victories for the United States.

Q: What old practice did the Twelfth Amendment replace? a. Presidents had no term limit. b. Presidents were elected by popular vote. c. Presidents were appointed by a vote of the state legislatures. d. The president and vice-president were elected by party delegates. e. The president and vice-president were elected from the same pool of candidates.

Q: What do presidents look for in selecting a Supreme Court justice?

Q: What would be different, with respect to the institution of the presidency, if Franklin D. Roosevelt had not won the 1932 election? a. The institution of the presidency would be less connected to the people. b. The federal bureaucracy would have grown faster. c. The president would have greater influence over the creation of new programs. d. The president would have less influence on the conduct of war. e. The public would have greater expectations that the president is responsible for policy initiatives.

Q: How did the events of Miranda v. Arizona lead to the police practice of reading criminal defendants their rights upon arrest?

Q: Under current federal law, Ohio would not have to give "full faith and credit" to which of the following? a. an adoption from Michigan b. a divorce from Canada c. an opposite sex marriage from Massachusetts d. a same sex marriage from Iowa because same-sex marriage is illegal in Ohio e. a marriage between two cousins from Nebraska because marriages between first cousins are illegal in Ohio

Q: The 2003 war in Iraq was the United States' most immediate and direct response to the September 11, 2001, terrorist attacks.

Q: Which of the following is a problem presented by the Electoral College? a. Career politicians have a natural advantage over outsiders. b. It favors Republicans over Democrats historically. c. It is too democratic and violates the intentions of the Framers. d. Small states are underrepresented. e. The winner of a popular vote can still fail to be elected.

Q: Explain judicial implementation.

Q: When might citizens be particularly concerned about an expansion of presidential power? a. when they support the president's agenda b. in times of economic crisis c. during presidential election years d. when they oppose the president's agenda e. in times of relative peace and prosperity

Q: Which of the following is the best definition of federalism? a. A constitutional arrangement by which power is distributed between a central government and state governments. b. A constitutional arrangement by which sovereign states create a limited central government. c. A constitutional arrangement concentrating power in a central government. d. A loose association of states constitutionally created by a strong central government. e. A loose association of states with mutually recognized compacts but no central government.