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Q:
Where did sleeping sickness and malaria foster isolation from outside cultural influences?
A) South America
B) Southeast Asia
C) Persia
D) tropical Africa
Q:
What triggered the growth of cities in West Africa?
A) the trans-Atlantic slave trade
B) the gold-mining industry
C) cotton cultivation
D) the trans-Sahara trade
Q:
Along with the domestication of cows, pigs, goats, and sheep in Eurasia came __________.
A) increased cases of heart disease
B) a prosperous leather industry in European cities
C) new strains of viruses and bacteria
D) early trends of obesity in the Eurasian population
Q:
How did large mammals from Eurasia differ from those of the Americas?
A) Due to the warmer climate in Eurasia, animal hides were thinner and thus offered far less warmth for humans.
B) In contrast to those Eurasia, American large mammals were naturally unsuitably for husbandry.
C) There were no large mammals in Eurasia, which is why people there resorted to domesticating fowl.
D) Eurasian large mammals were not hunted into extinction but became domesticated.
Q:
Which crop drove the Neolithic revolution in Eurasia and Africa?
A) corn
B) rice
C) potatoes
D) wheat
Q:
The collapse of Indian cities by ad 1500 had which of the following effects on Native American cultures on the continent?
A) Tribes focused their energy on the preservation and celebration of their history and heritage.
B) Native people learned from the fragility of nature and grew environmentally conscious.
C) As trade reduced to a trickle, native tribes found themselves more and more isolated.
D) Native tribes grew increasingly dependent on the manufactured goods of Europeans.
Q:
How could gender tensions have contributed to the increased conflicts between Indians by around ad 1300?
A) Women's increased participation in warrior culture made tribal warfare far deadlier.
B) Women's resentment over their second-class status prompted them to practice war against tribal men.
C) The reduction of women to chattel property turned tribal warfare into campaigns to steal each other's women.
D) The increased status of women in corn culture prompted men to reassert their dominance in warfare.
Q:
Scholars argue that the settlement of Cahokia first became unsustainable when __________.
A) European explorers practiced a relentless warfare against them
B) a cooling climate forced Cahokians to return to a nomadic lifestyle
C) deforestation in the region led to erosion, flooding, and soil erosion
D) an unfamiliar communicable disease wreaked havoc in the urban settlement
Q:
How can archeologists tell that Cahokian society was characterized by sharp class divisions?
A) They studied the earthen composition of the mounds.
B) They exhumed the giant palisade that divided and organized Cahokia.
C) They studied the garbage and graves of Cahokia.
D) They measured the skull sizes of Cahokian skeletons.
Q:
The most populous of the Mississippian cultures was located in present-day __________.
A) St. Louis
B) Wisconsin
C) North Dakota
D) Florida
Q:
How did the sedentary lifestyle of agricultural Indian tribes promote higher birth rates?
A) The decreased workload allowed more time for sexual activity.
B) Communal work on fields gave men and women more time to be together.
C) The much higher nutritional value of corn over meat assured higher fertility in women.
D) Infants weakened a hunting tribe's mobility but offered more helping hands on the field.
Q:
How have archeologists been able to date the advance of corn?
A) by measuring the size of ancient settlements
B) by analyzing the soil composition of early settlements
C) by studying the cave paintings of Archaic Indians
D) by dating the dental cavities of skeletons
Q:
The accomplishments of the corn-growing Anasazi and Hohokam Indians become clear if we consider which of the following?
A) the size of their urban populations
B) the range of trade networks they established into the eastern woodlands
C) the military technologies they developed
D) they environmental challenges they overcame
Q:
Why did the Anasazi of the Colorado Plateau begin the construction of trenches and homes about 2500 bp?
A) They embraced corn cultivation.
B) They adapted to a changing climate.
C) They sought better protection against enemy tribes.
D) They had learned the use of tools that made these activities possible.
Q:
The transition from hunting and gathering to farming is known as the __________.
A) Neolithic revolution
B) Archaic revolution
C) Paleolithic revolution
D) Clovis complex culture
Q:
The first and possibly greatest feat of genetic engineering was the creation of __________ 7,000 years ago.
A) potatoes
B) wheat
C) maize
D) yam
Q:
Which of the following best characterizes the transition from a nomadic existence to a settled agricultural life for Archaic American Indians?
A) The melting of ice sheets forced this transition abruptly.
B) In almost all tribes, this transition involved a highly personal choice.
C) The move from hunting and foraging to farming was slow and uneven.
D) Whereas the transition happened early in North America, it happened much later in South America.
Q:
In contrast to most Archaic Indian bands in North America, the people at Poverty Point had a social structure that was __________.
A) egalitarian
B) hierarchical
C) nomadic
D) utopian
Q:
One of the earliest sedentary communities in North America on the Mississippi River in Louisiana was founded __________ years ago.
A) 700
B) 1,700
C) 3,700
D) 7,300
Q:
Which of the following species became extinct as a result of the hunting practices of the Clovis complex culture around 12,000 years ago?
A) horses
B) elephants
C) monkeys
D) buffalo
Q:
Why is there so little evidence of Paleo Indian migrations along the North American Pacific coastline?
A) Paleo-Indians traveled across modern-day Canada into the Midwest first.
B) The uninhabitable nature of that coast forced migrants to move quickly, without setting up significant camps.
C) Early European explorers and settlers raided and destroyed much of the valuable evidence.
D) Global warming raised the sea level of the Pacific Ocean, flooding migrant routes of the past.
Q:
Why did Paleolithic people begin to move northeast in Asia?
A) Colder climates in Central Asia forced this migration.
B) They found themselves pushed out by Asiatic nomadic tribes.
C) The supply of big game was diminishing,
D) The failure of agricultural communities forced their return to nomadic practices.
Q:
What triggered the Paleolithic revolution?
A) agricultural practice
B) the human use of fire
C) the creation of stone tools
D) human migration from Asia to the Americas
Q:
Discuss the major arguments for and against the progressive movement. Which do you support?
Q:
Pertaining to public policy decision making, compare and contrast the power of state legislators with that of a state governor.
Q:
Discuss the major differences between the state and national Constitutions and why those disparities exist.
Q:
The U.S. Constitution gives extremely limited details or instructions on elections. As such, states are responsible for administering elections and creating the mechanism and laws to make them happen. Describe how the election process can differ from state to state, such as differences in voter registration laws and ballot arrangement.
Q:
States differ in the options and prerogatives they give to citizens to directly impact their governments. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of the voter initiative, the referendum, and the recall election as means for voter impact.
Q:
In the United States there are nearly 90,000 local government entities. What are some of the different forms of local government? What is the role of these entities within their state governments?
Q:
All fifty states have certain commonalities. Name several elements that are common among all states. Describe how states differ in their governmental structure and give at least two examples. What is the purpose of state constitutions, and how do they differ?
Q:
In a 1932 U.S. Supreme Court ruling, Justice Louis Brandeis addressed the role of state governments in relation to the federal government. Justice Brandeis referred to states as "laboratories of democracy." What is meant by his description? Give an example.
Q:
The process by which citizens have the opportunity to veto a legislative bill is known as a/an
A.caucus.
B.direct election.
C.initiative.
D.referendum.
E.recall.
Q:
The process of voters enacting laws directly is called a/an
A.caucus.
B.direct election.
C.initiative.
D.referendum.
E.recall.
Q:
What is an initiative?
A.Laws that do not require funding
B.Laws directly created by the governor
C.Laws which can be executed by the courts
D.Laws that are enacted by the public
E.The process for starting a lawsuit
Q:
In 2002, what were the circumstances of California Governor Gray Davis being removed from office?
A.He was impeached.
B.He lost the general election.
C.He was forced out via referendum.
D.He was recalled by the constituents.
E.He became ill.
Q:
Which of the following was a goal of the Progressive movement?
A.Directing voter involvement in primary elections
B.Increased support for social welfare programs
C.Decreased support for social welfare programs
D.Stronger political parties
E.Weaker political parties
Q:
State governments rely heavily on
A.tobacco tax
B.sales taxes
C.property taxes
D.corporate tax
E.luxury tax
Q:
The primary function of state courts is
A.dispute resolution
B.making policy decisions
C.setting the agenda
D.hearing criminal cases
E.tax appropriation
Q:
Most states have
A.a unicameral legislature.
B.a bicameral legislature.
C.a tricameral legislature.
D.a weak legislative branch.
E.two supreme courts.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT an ability Governors generally have the power to execute?
A.Agenda setting
B.Appoint judges to the federal court system
C.Legislative veto
D.Influence public policies
E.Grant pardons
Q:
Identify an issue that would primarily be the responsibility of a State government.
A.income taxes
B.regulating interstate commerce
C.public health
D.social security
E.border security
Q:
State constitutions were initially intended to limit the powers of state-level governments; the U.S. Constitution was designed to
A.limit the national government.
B.empower the national government.
C.empower the state governments.
D.empower smaller states.
E.check the power of larger states.
Q:
According to the Articles of Confederation, which level of government prevailed?
A.City governments
B.Local governments
C.County governments
D.State governments
E.The national government
Q:
Amending a state constitutions is
A.quite complex and time-consuming.
B.politically divisive and not often used.
C.easier than amending the U.S. Constitution.
D.more difficult than amending the U.S. Constitution.
E.often unnecessary due to the vague language used.
Q:
State judges are most commonly selected by
A.the governor.
B.the president.
C.judicial election.
D.appointment through the state legislature.
E.the Supreme Court.
Q:
Which of the states listed below have two state supreme courts?
A.California and Texas
B.Texas and Oklahoma
C.Alaska and Georgia
D.New Hampshire and Vermont
E.Kentucky and West Virginia
Q:
The state legislature of California, the largest state in terms of population size, has _____ members in its state legislature. The state of New Hampshire, with a much smaller population, has _____ members in its state legislature.
A.404; 92
B.484; 110
C.120; 424
D.222; 376
E.368; 112
Q:
At the time of the 2006 elections, there were _____ elected members of the 50 state legislatures across the nation.
A.1,883
B.5,112
C.6,383
D.7,382
E.11,444
Q:
Which of the states listed below have a history of being dominated by a powerful legislature?
A.Ohio and Utah
B.Texas and Kansas
C.New Hampshire and Maine
D.New York and Connecticut
E.Florida and Illinois
Q:
Which of the states listed below have a history of being dominated by a strong governor rather than the legislature?
A.Alaska and Hawaii
B.Wyoming and Oregon
C.Vermont and South Carolina
D.New York and Maryland
E.Illinois and Indiana
Q:
The last high-profile recall election that was successful occurred in
A.California in 2003.
B.North Dakota in 1921.
C.Texas in 1903.
D.California in 1930.
E.Ohio in 1970.
Q:
A technique of direct democracy, allowed in less than half of the states, which allows voters to attempt to remove an elected official from office is referred to as a(n)
A.initiative.
B.referendum.
C.recall.
D.impeachment.
E.town meeting.
Q:
Newly drafted legislation submitted directly to a popular vote as an alternative to adoption by a legislature is referred to as a(n)
A.referendum.
B.recall.
C.initiative.
D.civil action.
E.ordinance.
Q:
A popular vote that, if successful, overturns legislation that is already passed at the state or local level is referred to as a(n)
A.primary election.
B.referendum.
C.initiative.
D.electoral sweep.
E.recall.
Q:
Party competition can influence the competitiveness of state legislative elections. For example, what percentage of the 2004 state legislative races had seats that were uncontested by the opposition party?
A.2 percent
B.15 percent
C.35 percent
D.50 percent
E.70 percent
Q:
Which of the following is NOT one of the major functions of a state party organization in an election of state officeholders?
A.fundraising
B.providing campaign support
C.enacting legislation to limit opposition
D.organizing get-out-the-vote efforts
E.recruiting candidates
Q:
Of the thousands of elected members of the 50 state legislatures, how many are independents, that is, members of a third party?
A.none
B.20
C.47
D.111
E.more than 400
Q:
The Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act of 2002, often referred to as the McCain-Feingold Act, places strict limitations on campaign contributions to parties and candidates. What impact does this law have on state-level party functions and state elections?
A.State-level functions are not as strictly limited but they are controlled.
B.It has no impact because the law pertains only to federal candidates and party functions at the federal level.
C.The same limitations apply at the state level.
D.Each state must restrict contributions but the dollar amounts may differ.
E.It has no impact because such a law would be ruled as unconstitutional by the U.S. Supreme Court.
Q:
Ballots for elections are structured differently according to state. In one option for structuring a ballot, the name of the political party appears at the top of the column and candidates for the office appear below, thus cuing the voter to the partisan affiliation. This method of ballot structure is called
A.the party primary.
B.the forced-choice ballot.
C.filtering.
D.the Indiana ballot.
E.the third-party ballot.
Q:
The responsibility for administering all elections lies with
A.city governments working with the federal government.
B.county governments.
C.the states, with the assistance of local governments.
D.the federal and state courts.
E.the federal government.
Q:
Small towns in New England developed a particular form of local government that involves a pure form of direct democracy. The form of government is called the
A.town meeting.
B.council-mayor form.
C.council-manager form.
D.Athens format.
E.congregational style of government.
Q:
The second most common form of local government structure attempts to remove politics from the management of the city and place it in the hands of a professional, non-elected employee. This structure is the
A.mayor-council form.
B.council-manager form.
C.town hall form.
D.New England style.
E.professional form.
Q:
The role of mayor varies between states and localities. Many cities have a "strong mayor" system, which means
A.the mayor has veto power that cannot be overridden.
B.the elected council members are subordinate to the mayor.
C.the mayor is directly elected by the voters of the locality and has true executive authority.
D.the mayor cannot be removed for any reason other than a vote of the people.
E.the mayor makes all hiring decisions.
Q:
The most common structure for local governments is modeled on the executive and legislative branches of the federal and 50 state governments. This is referred to as the
A.bicameral form of government.
B.republican form of government.
C.mayoral dominance form of government.
D.commission form of government.
E.mayor-council form of government.
Q:
Though the state court systems vary widely and have different levels of courts, what is the one commonality that all fifty state court systems possess?
A.All states now have drug courts.
B.All states have intermediate appellate courts.
C.Counties no longer have any control or duties in the state court systems.
D.Every state has a supreme court.
E.Every state court is well-funded due to the nationwide increase in crime.
Q:
In the United States there are separate court systems for the federal government and the state governments. Both systems are large and complex. What percentage of the nation's litigation is processed in the state courts?
A.5 percent.
B.20 percent.
C.48 percent.
D.60 percent.
E.95 percent.
Q:
In approximately the past 30 years, the percentage of state legislators who are women has increased to
A.2 percent.
B.8 percent.
C.22 percent.
D.48 percent.
E.60 percent.
Q:
Which state is the only one that does not have a bicameral legislature?
A.Alaska
B.Wyoming
C.Nebraska
D.New York
E.Texas
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a duty of a state governor?
A.to act as ceremonial head of state government to greet dignitaries, etc.
B.to head the state's political party of which he/she is a member
C.to serve as commander-in-chief of military forces assigned within the state
D.to execute and manage the state budget
E.to coordinate and direct official response to emergency and natural disasters
Q:
All 50 states have a governor who is the head of the state's executive branch. The primary purpose of a governor is
A.to veto legislation as a check on the abuse of power in the legislative branch.
B.to develop, enact, and implement an annual state budget.
C.to serve as head of the state judicial system.
D.to organize state government and to properly delegate authority in order to ensure effective administration of the state's programs and duties.
E.to increase economic development in the state and manage resources.
Q:
Special districts are local government entities that provide specialized services rather than a full array of services. The most common type of special districts are
A.court enforcement districts.
B.school districts.
C.zoning districts.
D.soil and water conservation districts.
E.environmental buffer districts.
Q:
The duties and authorities of counties across the nation differ from state to state; however, all counties have some minimal common duties and services. Which of the following would NOT be included in a list of responsibilities of all counties?
A.creation of curriculum and standardized testing for primary education levels
B.maintenance of records from polling places
C.land deeds and transfers
D.maintenance of birth and death certificates
E.assistance to the state government in administering elections
Q:
Multipurpose local governments are chartered in order to manage and regulate local services. Examples of multipurpose governments range from large cities to counties to small rural towns. Which of the following is NOT one of the services that are normally provided in a multi-purpose government?
A.fire and police protection
B.local roads
C.parks and recreation
D.public universities
E.water and sewer services
Q:
In 1868 Judge John Dillon from Iowa issued a ruling which has become known as Dillon's Rule. The ruling considered the relationship of local and state governments. What does this "rule" provide?
A.State governments have clear authority over the local governments that they have created.
B.Local governments have considerable autonomy from state intervention.
C.Local governments, once created, become sovereign.
D.If a local government has taxing power, then it has the right of self-determination.
E.Public education priorities and decisions must be made at the local level.
Q:
A state law that grants a local government the authority to provide public services, enact and enforce regulations, and raise revenue to support its operations is called a(n)
A.charter.
B.referendum.
C.local adoption.
D.appropriation.
E.initiative.
Q:
Local government entities in the United States include cities, towns, counties, school districts, and special governing districts such as transit systems. How many individual local government entities currently exist in the United States?
A.approximately 1,000
B.approximately 15,000
C.approximately 90,000
D.approximately 500,000
E.more than 1,000,000
Q:
Which of the following, detailed in all state constitutions, is NOT a component of state government?
A.provision and procedure by which citizens can veto legislation
B.structure and power of the state legislature
C.structure and power of the governor
D.structure and powers of the state court system
E.process for amending the state constitution
Q:
What is the relationship of cities and towns to the state governments?
A.Local governmental bodies are completely autonomous and function independently.
B.State governments must approve all budgets and ordinances of local governments.
C.While local governments have some autonomy, they are still ultimately subordinate to the state governments.
D.There is no significant relationship between state governments and cities and counties.
E.Local governments must rely on the state government for revenues since local governments cannot tax citizens.
Q:
Which of the following is included in nearly every state constitution?
A.a citizens' bill of rights
B.a provision for free college education
C.a provision for construction of adequate prisons and jails
D.a provision for capital punishment
E.popular election of judges
Q:
The early 1900s also witnessed a progressive era that focused much attention on the social ills of our society. During this time many constitutions were rewritten or amended to include efforts to address such issues. Which of the following is NOT included in such constitutional efforts in many of the states?
A.creation of public health services
B.free and compulsory public education
C.regulating business and limiting monopolies
D.increase in use of the death penalty
E.moderate controls on railroads