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Q:
The U.S. presidential election takes place every four years on the
A.first Tuesday in November.
B.second Tuesday in November.
C.the Tuesday after the first Monday in November.
D.the Tuesday after the second Monday in November.
E.third Tuesday in November.
Q:
Approximately what percentage of Americans report that they have contributed money to a political campaign?
A.less than 1 percent
B.5 percent
C.20 percent
D.30 percent
E.65 percent
Q:
The image, personal traits, and other characteristics of the particular candidates in a campaign can have an influence on the way people vote. Which of the following is NOT commonly one of the perceptions used by voters in forming candidate image?
A.trustworthiness
B.leadership ability
C.concern for the voter
D.integrity
E.wealth or lack of it
Q:
A concept that evaluates an incumbent's job performance as a significant indicator of whether to support the candidate in the current election is called
A.party identification.
B.candidate appeal.
C.party dedication.
D.electoral balance.
E.retrospective voting.
Q:
A psychological attachment to a political party that tends to be very stable and long-term once it is formed is called
A.political dependence.
B.electoral addiction.
C.party identification.
D.patriotism.
E.party pride.
Q:
Which demographic group tends to benefit more from low voter turnout according to some experts?
A.the poor and disenfranchised
B.minority groups with less numbers of eligible voters.
C.the youngest of voters, ages 18 to 25
D.women
E.the affluent and higher socioeconomic groups
Q:
In regard to low voter turnout in elections, which of the following results is of most concern?
A.It is too difficult for most voters to make choices among candidates.
B.Low turnout tends to favor Democratic candidates.
C.It may be a symptom of a weakening democracy.
D.The expense of the election is not worth the amount of turnout.
E.Poll workers and campaign staff feel that they have wasted their time.
Q:
What is meant by the term "social capital"?
A.the potential taxing power of the federal government
B.the extent to which individuals are socially integrated into their communities
C.the level of corporate income in the United States
D.the level at which most Americans cooperate with one another
E.the power of society to change itself through voting
Q:
In nearly all American elections, the level of voter turnout rarely exceeds
A.10 percent.
B.30 percent.
C.50 percent.
D.60 percent.
E.80 percent.
Q:
Voter turnout is almost always highest during what type of election?
A.presidential elections
B.elections for U.S. Senators
C.elections for governor and state representatives
D.county and other local elections
E.special elections such as votes on school bonds
Q:
Which of the following factors are considered high stimulus, meaning that they help to generate a higher level of voter participation in a particular election?
A.greater levels of media coverage
B.higher significance of the office
C.incentives given to voters to entice them to the polls
D.more attractive candidates
E.perceptions of a close race
Q:
The most frequently utilized method of voting, at 37 percent, is
A.the paper ballot.
B.the optical scan card.
C.the punch card.
D.the manual lever voting machine.
E.online voting.
Q:
What percentage of voting precincts nationwide still use paper ballots?
A.3 percent
B.8 percent
C.10 percent
D.22 percent
E.32 percent
Q:
The bulk of the work and the machinery for carrying out an election is normally handled at what level?
A.by neighborhood
B.nationally by a federal elections agency
C.at the county and local level
D.at the state level
E.by monitoring boards in geographical regions created by Congress
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a legitimate method of voting that is currently used in the United States?
A.hand-counted paper ballots
B.mechanical lever machines
C.optical scan cards
D.show of hands
E.computer punch cards
Q:
Which of the following is NOT considered to be an effect of education level on voter participation?
A.Education enhances a person's appreciation for democracy and sense of civic duty.
B.Education improves his/her ability to understand problems in society.
C.Education sharpens a person's mind.
D.Education often decreases voter participation because the person is exposed to realities of political culture.
E.Education equips the voter to deal with complex information.
Q:
Which of the following demographic groups is most likely to consistently vote in elections?
A.young adults under 25 years old
B.men in general
C.women in general
D.racial minorities
E.men and women of retirement age
Q:
The percentage of eligible voters who show up on election day is called
A.democratic participation.
B.foundational democracy.
C.compliance.
D.vote regulation.
E.voter turnout.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a reason why people choose to vote?
A.perception that their vote has an impact on the election
B.pride in American democracy
C.being a good citizen requires participation
D.state laws that require voter participation
E.sense of civic duty
Q:
What did the Motor Voter law enact in 1993?
A.An individual renewing a driver's license may also register to vote at the same time.
B.States must create drive-through polling locations.
C.Every citizen must have a polling location within a reasonable driving distance.
D.Registered voters must be allowed to vote on transportation-related budget issues.
E.Unrestricted voter registration is allowed in all states.
Q:
In recent years the trend has been to make voter registration much more accessible and easier. Voter registrations have increased nationwide. What has been the subsequent result in voter turnout?
A.Voter turnout has sharply increased.
B.Voter turnout has increased at almost the same rate as voter registrations.
C.There has been no noticeable increase in voter turnout.
D.The effect on voter turnout actually appears to be negative.
E.Voter ideology has become much more liberal.
Q:
Currently in the United States the only group of adult citizens who are legally denied the right to vote in any election are
A.those living in the District of Columbia.
B.citizens of Puerto Rico.
C.naturalized citizens.
D.individuals who are in jail awaiting trial.
E.convicted felons.
Q:
The Twenty-Sixth Amendment in 1971 made what change with regard to voting?
A.Women were granted the right to vote.
B.Native Americans were granted full citizenship.
C.The voting age was lowered nationwide to 18 years old.
D.Former slaves were given the right to vote.
E.Poll taxes were made illegal nationwide.
Q:
Which of the following groups was the last to gain universal suffrage in the United States?
A.African Americans
B.women
C.poor whites
D.Native Americans
E.naturalized citizens
Q:
Before the Constitution was amended to guarantee all women in the United States the right to vote, there were already some women who were allowed to vote. How did this happen?
A.Years after the fact, it was learned that women had posed as men to enter the polling places.
B.These particular women were soldiers.
C.Several states had given women the right to vote even before the U.S. Constitution was amended requiring all states to grant this right.
D.Certain women were allowed to vote only in local school board elections.
E.The U.S. Supreme Court granted this right.
Q:
The first formal and organized women's rights movement in the United States came at the Seneca Falls convention in
A.1776.
B.1810.
C.1848.
D.1920.
E.1960.
Q:
The Nineteenth Amendment granted women the right to vote in
A.1776.
B.1800.
C.1865.
D.1920.
E.1970.
Q:
The federal legislation that outlawed the use of literacy tests as intimidating tactics that keep minority citizens from accessing the polling places was the
A.Dred Scott v. Sanford (1857).
B.Voting Rights Act of 1965.
C.Civil Rights Act of 1964.
D.Brown v. Board of Education (1954).
E.Equal Rights Amendment of 1971.
Q:
The Twenty-Fourth Amendment, which was ratified in 1964, prohibited what?
A.the federal government from attempting to intervene in the powers of the state governments to regulate voting
B.the popular election of U.S. Senators
C.the use of tax revenues to pay for elections
D.the creation of any artificial barrier that prohibited exercising of voting rights
E.the possession of firearms by private citizens in the District of Columbia
Q:
Through as late as the first half of the twentieth century, voter turnout for African American citizens was about
A.1 percent.
B.10 percent.
C.40 percent.
D.60 percent.
E.90 percent.
Q:
What was a tactic used for nearly one hundred years following the Civil War that required that a citizen prove he/she could read and write as a prerequisite to voting? It was intended as a method to deny suffrage to most African-Americans and other poor citizens.
A.literacy test
B.poll tax
C.General Equivalency Exam
D.naturalization exam
E.standardized testing
Q:
A tactic that was legal until challenged late in the twentieth century that required individual citizens to pay a fee before being allowed to vote was
A.the literacy tax.
B.the poll tax.
C.franchise payment.
D.revenue adjustment.
E.legal extortion.
Q:
What was the primary ruling of the U.S. Supreme Court in Dred Scott v. Sanford (1857)?
A.It lowered the voting age for all citizens to 18 years old.
B.It ruled that a state could legally secede from the union.
C.It ruled that slaves were property and they had no rights and could never become legal citizens of the United States.
D.It gave women the right to vote.
E.It took away the powers of the state government to regulate voting.
Q:
In regard to the powers of the federal government, which of the following was an important aspect of the Fifteenth Amendment?
A.The amendment removed the powers of the state governments to regulate voting and gave all of the powers to the federal government.
B.The state governments came together to remove any influence that the federal government had over voting.
C.It gave the federal government total control over the regulation of slavery.
D.It granted addition and important powers to the federal government to enforce voting rights over the states.
E.It prohibited the federal government from intervening in state laws and regulations.
Q:
The Thirteenth, Fourteenth, and Fifteenth Amendments to the U.S. Constitution are commonly referred to as
A.the middle amendments.
B.the Civil War amendments.
C.the Bill of Rights.
D.the Southern amendments.
E.the franchise.
Q:
What effect did the Fourteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution, ratified in 1868, have on former slaves?
A.recognized them as three-fifths of a person in the determination of representation in the U.S. House of Representatives
B.granted them full citizenship and its rights
C.upheld slavery as an institution in the southern states
D.gave the right to state governments to determine if slavery is legal within their borders
E.granted reparations for their former enslavement
Q:
The Fifteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution, ratified in 1870, granted what right?
A.the right of free speech for all citizens
B.the right of all women to vote
C.citizenship for Native Americans
D.the right of any citizen to vote regardless of race or previous condition of servitude
E.the right of any citizen to vote regardless of how much property is owned
Q:
Which of these groups was given the right to vote through the Twenty-Third Amendment?
A.citizens convicted of a felony
B.African Americans in all southern states
C.naturalized citizens
D.residents of the District of Columbia
E.citizens aged 18
Q:
Compare and contrast the platforms, strengths, weaknesses, and strategies of the Republican and Democratic Parties.
Q:
Explain the influences on party identification. To what extent have those influences impacted your life?
Q:
What are the historical roles and functions of political parties in America? Do parties play a worthwhile role in the modern American political system?
Q:
Discuss the impact of third parties in American political history. Have they generally been successful? Describe some of the most significant third-party presidential campaigns.
Q:
What is meant by "divided government"? Describe how divided government, though it sounds negative, may actually have a very beneficial effect on a democracy.
Q:
What is meant by the term "critical election"? Identify and discuss at least two critical presidential elections in American history. Why were these elections designated as critical?
Q:
What were the primary differences between the first two major parties, which were the Federalists and Anti-Federalists? What forces led to the dissolution of these parties?
Q:
How did the early leaders of the United States, such as George Washington and Alexander Hamilton, view political parties? Did their views persist over a long period of time or have a significant impact?
Q:
Who started the Reform party during the 1992 presidential campaign season?
A.Bill Clinton
B.Ralph Nader
C.Ross Perot
D.Bob Dole
E.Jimmy Carter
Q:
The major parties were weakened by
A.urbanization.
B.the large number of lobbyists.
C.the Progressive movement.
D.the presence of labor unions.
E.welfare reform.
Q:
Which President created his own political party in 1912, effectively splitting his party?
A.Andrew Jackson
B.William McKinley
C.Woodrow Wilson
D.Calvin Coolidge
E.Teddy Roosevelt
Q:
Members of which of the following groups are most likely to be Democrats?
A.the working class
B.the wealthy
C.men
D.middle-aged Americans
E.Asians
Q:
The single greatest influence on young citizens' initial party identification is their
A.parents.
B.age.
C.race.
D.gender.
E.income.
Q:
Which of the following has run as a third-party candidate?
A.Lyndon Johnson
B.Ralph Nader
C.Herbert Hoover
D.Ronald Reagan
E.Dwight Eisenhower
Q:
The head of the national party is the
A.party's most recently defeated presidential candidate.
B.secretary of the party.
C.national convention chair.
D.party's most recent former president of the United States.
E.chairperson of the national committee.
Q:
Every four years, the major parties nominate their presidential candidates through
A.party platforms.
B.ballot initiatives.
C.national conventions.
D.conference committees.
E.election committees.
Q:
The selection of party candidates through the ballots of qualified voters is called a
A.direct primary.
B.state convention.
C.local caucus.
D.party conference.
E.party referendum.
Q:
The U.S. has a "single member, plurality" system, often referred to as
A.direct representation.
B.proportional representation.
C.winner-take-all.
D.winner-take-most.
E.winner-take-some.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a function of political parties in the United States?
A.Mobilizing support for issues and candidates
B.Providing a force for stability and moderation
C.Providing a cue for voter action
D.Interpreting laws and exercising judicial review
E.Formulating and promoting policy
Q:
An election that signals a major change in party coalitions is called
A.a contested election.
B.a critical election.
C.a consequential election.
D.a crucial election.
E.a tumultuous election.
Q:
A shifting of party coalitions in the electorate that remain in place for several election cycles is called
A.a realignment.
B.a misalignment.
C.a transition.
D.an electoral shift.
E.a temporary mandate.
Q:
The Republican Party was established in
A.1776.
B.1837.
C.1854.
D.1891.
E.1902.
Q:
Who was the first presidential candidate elected as the nominee of a party?
A.Thomas Jefferson
B.John Quincy Adams
C.Andrew Jackson
D.Alexander Hamilton
E.Martin Van Buren
Q:
Often a major political party will witness a split in party membership and the disgruntled members will form a new party. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic types of third parties?
A.economic protest parties
B.ideological parties
C.issue parties
D.unifying parties
E.factional parties
Q:
Ralph Nader ran for president in 2000 as a third-party candidate and is widely believed to have cost Democrat Party candidate Al Gore the election. What was Nader's party called?
A.Reform
B.Green
C.Christian
D.Constitutional
E.Populist
Q:
Ross Perot made a significant third-party run for president in 1992. Though unsuccessful, his candidacy had a major impact on the outcome. What was Perot's party called?
A.Democratic-Republican
B.Socialist
C.Green
D.American Independent
E.Reform
Q:
A change in the early twentieth century whereby the rank-and-file party members rather than party leaders began to choose the party's nominees for offices is referred to as
A.general election preemption.
B.general election screening process.
C.direct primary election.
D.local primary preference.
E.straw vote.
Q:
The practice by which victorious parties offer loyal party members jobs in government is called
A.political screening.
B.party proliferation.
C.the bureaucracy.
D.patronage.
E.spoilage.
Q:
Most major political parties are organized with the primary structure and activity being at the
A.federal level, where the funding is significant.
B.regional level, because most fundraising is done based on geographic area of the country.
C.national level, where the bulk of the work of elections is carried out.
D.local or grassroots level, where party supporters meet and get out the vote.
E.congressional district level.
Q:
The central governing body of the two major American political parties is called the
A.politburo.
B.national committee.
C.presidential counsel.
D.central bureau.
E.Congress.
Q:
Ideologically, American public opinion tends to show certain consistent trends. Ideologically, most Americans
A.are either extreme left or extreme right in their leanings.
B.are prone to swing back and forth between liberal and conservative ideologies.
C.are prone to follow the lead of European nations such as France and Britain.
D.are moderate, or centrist, thus creating a scenario in which the two major parties are leery of venturing away from the center.
E.are unsure of where they stand.
Q:
In the United States a candidate for a congressional seat wins a plurality of the votes but not a majority, however, the candidate still wins the seat. This process is referred to as
A.proportional representation.
B.winner-takes-all.
C.district voting.
D.clean sweep theory.
E.constitutional apportionment.
Q:
Which term refers to a government with split party control of the presidency and Congress?
A.realignment
B.party identification
C.divided government
D.party majority
E.multi-party management
Q:
Political scientist Phillip Converse refers to a "normal vote." In the context of the political party, what is meant by this term?
A.There are no controversies involved in the electoral outcome.
B.The election has one Democrat and one Republican, with no third party candidates.
C.A certain number of Democratic votes will be cast by Democrats and a certain predictable number of Republican votes will be cast by Republican voters.
D.In this type of vote, a predictable amount of voters turn out and participate.
E.The results of the election are not dramatic or realigning.
Q:
What is the psychological connection that voters have with a political party that influences other attitudes as well as voting behavior?
A.party unity
B.party identification
C.issue attachment
D.anomie
E.electoral bonding
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a critical and legitimate function of an American political party?
A.providing an organizational coherence to the operations of popular elections
B.assisting in the management of government
C.contesting elections on behalf of the electorate
D.recruiting and nominating candidates for public office
E.blocking as much legislation as possible from the opposing party in Congress
Q:
Since 1968 the American political scene has witnessed a slow but steady shift in political party affiliation, especially in the South. What is occurring?
A.The historically solid Democratic stronghold in the South has reverted to a strong Republican territory.
B.A strong third party has emerged.
C.Strom Thurmond's States' Rights party has been instrumental in cementing the Democratic stronghold in the South.
D.Northern Republicans are migrating to the South but the native population in the southern states remains committed to the Democratic Party.
E.The Democratic Party in the South has lost much support but that loss has been seen mostly across racial lines.
Q:
A nationally traumatic event such as a major war or economic depression will often signal a shift in public opinion, which will be evidenced by realigning elections. The Great Depression was in full swing in 1932 when the Republicans finally lost their grip on the presidency. Who was the successful Democratic candidate in the realigning election of 1932?
A.Herbert Hoover
B.Calvin Coolidge
C.Franklin D. Roosevelt
D.Harry Truman
E.Dwight Eisenhower
Q:
Woodrow Wilson in 1912 was the only Democratic presidential candidate to win an election between 1896 and 1932. To what do most experts credit Wilson's win?
A.Wilson's promise of neutrality in WWI
B.Wilson's education and credentials
C.the demise of the Republican Party
D.the Great Depression, which had seriously damaged the government's credibility among citizens
E.a strong third-party campaign by former Republican president Theodore Roosevelt, which had clearly siphoned votes away from the unpopular current president, Howard Taft
Q:
An election that results in a clear shifting of voter preferences from one party to another, or that clearly solidifies a party's unity, is referred to as a
A.realigning, or critical, election.
B.divisive, or polarizing, election.
C.party election, or political sweep.
D.party overthrow.
E.sectionalization.
Q:
One theory states that certain elections can be characterized as producing sharp changes in patterns of party loyalty among voters, such as the election of 1860 in which Abraham Lincoln won the presidency. This theory is called
A.partisan theory.
B.critical election theory.
C.progressive era theory.
D.democratic theory.
E.socialist theory.
Q:
The strongest third-party campaign for president took place during the 1912 election, which resulted in the third-party candidate receiving the second place and gaining more votes than one of the major party candidates. Who was this third-party candidate and his party?
A.Robert LaFollette/Socialist
B.Strom Thurmond/States' Rights
C.George Wallace/Independent
D.Theodore Roosevelt/Bull Moose
E.Eugene V. Debs/Progressive