Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
History & Theory
Q:
Article IV, Section 1 of the U.S. Constitution contains the full faith and credit clause. What does this clause guarantee?
A.The states must have full faith that the federal government's decisions are correct.
B.The federal government is a guaranteed lender to the state governments for operational funds.
C.Each state will abide by the decisions of other state and local governments, including their judicial decisions, and will respect the civil laws of each state.
D.The federal government has the power to mediate disputes among states regarding religion.
E.The federal government is committed to matters of faith and must ensure that the right to religious faith is upheld.
Q:
In a federal system of government what is role of the national government when disputes arise between states?
A.The federal government is powerless in disagreements between states.
B.The federal government has legislative powers to arbitrate disagreements between states.
C.Disagreements between states are arbitrated by a council of state executives; the federal government has no role.
D.The federal government has an equal vote and stake, as do the two or more states that are disagreeing.
E.The high courts of the states in disagreement arbitrate the dispute without interference of the federal government.
Q:
When the Congress exercises power given to it under Article I, the federal law it creates may supersede a state law. This process is known as
A.federal abuse of power.
B.unconstitutional action.
C.the doctrine of preemption.
D.the doctrine of fair business practice.
E.judicial review.
Q:
When the U.S. Supreme Court interprets and makes a ruling concerning a question involving the U.S. Constitution
A.that ruling has no bearing on the state governments.
B.the ruling only applies to an agency or official of the federal government.
C.the supremacy clause applies only to the Constitution and not to Supreme Court actions.
D.that ruling may be overridden by a state's supreme court.
E.any state legislature or state court must also abide by the interpretation of the U.S. Constitution by the Supreme Court.
Q:
Article VI of the U.S. Constitution contains the supremacy clause. What is the importance of this clause?
A.It requires that the individual state constitutions will be the "supreme law of the land" and that the national constitution may not override them.
B.It creates the standard that no other law, state constitution, or government action may override the U.S. Constitution, which is considered the "supreme law of the land."
C.It states that Congress is supreme over the other two branches of government.
D.It provides that no single government has supremacy over another.
E.It establishes the supremacy of the American citizen as the ultimate power.
Q:
Article I of the U.S. Constitution grants that Congress has the power to make laws that are "necessary and proper" to carry out its duties. What is the meaning of this statement?
A.Congress has implied powers that are not expressly stated in the Constitution and, though not expressly stated, Congress has an expectation to enact legislation to carry out its duties.
B.Congress is required to enact most laws.
C.The Constitution contains all of the rights and powers necessary for Congress to perform its duties.
D.Congress ultimately has the power to override any state laws that it deems unnecessary or improper.
E.Congress is expected to keep its lawmaking function to a minimum.
Q:
The Tenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution provides
A.freedom of speech.
B.citizenship rights to all natural born residents.
C.that any powers not expressly given to Congress are reserved to the states.
D.that the national government is supreme.
E.for the powers of judicial review.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a power held by the national legislature under the U.S. Constitution?
A.To lay and collect taxes
B.To raise and support armies and navies
C.To declare war
D.To coin money
E.To provide for the health, safety, and welfare of citizens
Q:
Constitutional powers that are shared by both the federal and state governments are called
A.enumerated powers.
B.reserved powers.
C.concurrent powers.
D.moderate powers.
E.constituent powers.
Q:
In the U.S. Constitution, powers that are not expressly given to Congress but are retained by the state governments are called
A.enumerated powers.
B.reserved powers.
C.concurrent powers.
D.federal powers.
E.decentralized powers.
Q:
Powers explicitly delegated to the Congress under Article I of the U.S. Constitution are referred to as
A.enumerated powers.
B.reserved powers.
C.concurrent powers.
D.federal powers.
E.constituent powers.
Q:
James Madison referred to the system of federalism as the "middle ground" of government types. What did he mean by this statement?
A.The federal system is very weak because it fails to establish itself in contrast to unitary and confederation systems.
B.Unitary systems and confederation systems are opposing ends of the continuum. Federalism has elements of both systems but is the best attempt to balance the powers and needs of the state versus federal governments.
C.The government fails to take a definitive stance.
D.Federalism is the second most preferred system of government, after the unitary system.
E.The federal system abolishes the individual powers of the central and state governments in favor of a weaker, but more balanced, hybrid government.
Q:
One frequent challenge with a unitary system of government is hypercentralism, which means that
A.an unhealthy and unusually excessive level of control exists in the central government.
B.multiple layers of government exist at the central level.
C.a multi-chambered parliament is unable to respond to needs of the constituency.
D.there is complete reliance on the central government and the extinguishing of individual state differences, which hampers local officials from appropriately responding to needs.
E.the elected officials who serve the central government exert abusive authority over the citizens.
Q:
Germany has a strong central government but the country is also made up of Bundeslander, the plural term for the regions that are very similar to American states. Each Bundesland has its own strong local government which shares power with the central government. This government system is an example of
A.federalism.
B.democracy.
C.humanitarianism.
D.secularism.
E.unity.
Q:
England has a strong elected Parliament that serves as the central government. All local governments are subordinate to Parliament and the monarch is, in actuality, a figurehead. This governmental arrangement is an example of
A.a confederation.
B.an anti-monarchial system.
C.a federation.
D.a unitary system.
E.a constitutional system.
Q:
Which of the following is a system of government in which sovereignty rests in the central government alone, and states cannot exert direct authority over citizens without approval of the central government?
A.federal system
B.confederation
C.unitary system
D.parochial system
E.secular system
Q:
Why could the United Nations be considered a confederation?
A.It is a league of sovereign countries that work together to enforce various international laws.
B.The United Nations cannot be considered a confederation.
C.It is bound by a constitution to perform certain powers.
D.When nations join they become subordinate to the United Nations governing body.
E.Member nations are subordinate to the European community.
Q:
A confederation
A.is defined as a single sovereign state.
B.consists of two or more governments that are legally bound to each other by contract.
C.may be defined as a league of independent states that voluntarily unite to achieve certain goals.
D.is a constitutional arrangement whereby two or more governments are required to cooperate.
E.is a state of political rebellion.
Q:
Individuals in the U.S. have official status as citizens
A.in both the state in which they reside and in the nation as a whole.
B.in all 50 states and in the nation as a whole.
C.in the nation only, as the state do not confer citizenship status.
D.after the age of 18.
E.upon approval of the national government.
Q:
In a system of federalism, in which sovereign government does the individual hold citizenship?
A.The individual is considered only as a citizen of the national government and simply a resident of the state.
B.The state holds the individual's citizenship.
C.Some states allow dual citizenship while others do not.
D.The individual is a citizen of both the state and the national governments.
E.The individual must choose his/her citizenship.
Q:
Sovereignty is defined as
A.the power of a governmental unit to control the destiny of another unit.
B.the lack of a centralized government.
C.the supreme political power of a government to regulate its affairs with outside interference.
D.the political power to control all subordinate governments.
E.a state of anarchy.
Q:
In order to maintain itself, federalism
A.must be ordered by a court with proper jurisdiction.
B.must be voted into existence by the people.
C.cannot coexist within a democracy.
D.generally requires the existence of a central government tier and a subnational tier, with each tier assigned its own significant powers.
E.must coexist within a monarchy.
Q:
A system of government in which power is divided between a central authority and constituent political subunits is called
A.a state system.
B.a federal system, or federated system.
C.a dual system.
D.a democracy.
E.a national system.
Q:
How does the aftermath of Hurricane Katrina underscore some of the disadvantages of federalism system of governance?
Q:
Using contemporary examples, discuss the current state of federalism in the United States.
Q:
What were the issues involved in McCulloch v. Maryland and Gibbons v. Ogden? What are the significances of these decisions for understanding the nature of American federalism? Compare and contrast these two cases.
Q:
The U.S. Supreme Court plays a unique role in the American system of federalism. What was the Court's role during the national supremacy period? How had its role changed by the new federalism period? Overall, how has it been utilized over the years in the struggles over federalism?
Q:
What is meant by the term "New Federalism"? Discuss this era in comparison with earlier eras, especially regarding the roles of federal and state governments.
Q:
The presidency of Thomas Jefferson was significant regarding federalism. Discuss the Jefferson administration's approach to the debate over states' rights as well as his friction with the Federalists of his day.
Q:
Compare the American system of federalism to other governmental structures such as a unitary government or a confederation. What are some of the strengths of federalism when compared with other government structures?
Q:
The U.S. Constitution creates a dual system of government whereby powers are distributed between a federal government and the state governments. This arrangement has seen its share of challenges and changes. Discuss the major eras in American history as they relate to federalism, and describe which level of government appeared to be dominant at each time.
Q:
Which president implemented the New Deal programs?
A.Teddy Roosevelt
B.Woodrow Wilson
C.Franklin Delano Roosevelt
D.John F. Kennedy
E.Lyndon B. Johnson
Q:
The textbook describes the post-New Deal era as
A.Cooperative federalism
B.Dual federalism
C.Layer cake federalism
D.Marble cake federalism
E.State-centered federalism
Q:
According to the principles of dual federalism, the national government should not
A.impose income taxes.
B.regulate interstate commerce.
C.exceed its enumerated powers.
D.inhibit economic development.
E.promote economic development.
Q:
___________ marked the start of the National Supremacy Period.
A.The Civil War
B.Marbury v. Madison
C.United States v. Lopez
D.The Great Depression
E.Alien and Seditions Act of 1798
Q:
What caused the era of dual federalism to end?
A.The Civil War
B.Industrialization
C.Urbanization
D.Mercantilism
E.The Great Depression
Q:
Which event helped shape the political climate for dual federalism?
A.Revolutionary War
B.Civil War
C.The Great Depression
D.World War I
E.Cold War
Q:
Under whose leadership did the Supreme Court usher in the era of dual federalism?
A.Alexander Hamilton
B.Aaron Burr
C.John Marshall
D.Roger Taney
E.Andrew Jackson
Q:
According to Chief Justice John Marshall, " the power to tax involves the power to _______."
A.inhibit states from promoting the general welfare
B.shirk the states' constitutional obligations
C.facilitate interstate commerce
D.destroy
E.grow
Q:
In 1819, the Marshall Court upheld the necessary and proper clause and the supremacy clause in
A.Marbury v. Madison.
B.Gibbons v. Ogden.
C.McCulloch v. Maryland.
D.Dred Scott v. Sandford.
E.Lemon v. Krutz.
Q:
At the time the Constitution was adopted, which of the following powers was not granted to the federal government?
A.The power to levy a national income tax.
B.The power to make all laws necessary and proper to execute the enumerated powers.
C.The power to coin money.
D.The power to conduct foreign relations.
E.The power to declare war.
Q:
Where state law conflicts with national law, national law prevails due to
A.Article II.
B.Article III.
C.Article IV.
D.Article V.
E.Article VI.
Q:
Which of the following is an example of a concurrent power in the Constitution?
A.taxation
B.coining money
C.establishing federal courts
D.regulating commerce within a state
E.conducting war
Q:
A power that is not stated explicitly in the Constitution but is considered to reasonably flow from a power stated in Article I, Section 8, is called a(n)
A.explicit power.
B.enumerated power.
C.implied power.
D.stolen power.
E.concurrent power.
Q:
Under the _________, a bankruptcy recognized by the state of New York would be recognized by Texas.
A.privileges and immunities clause
B.supremacy clause
C.takings clause
D.interstate commerce clause
E.full faith and credit clause
Q:
Describe the principles of separation of powers and checks and balances. How have they evolved? How have they been incorporated into the Constitution?
Q:
Compare and contrast the rhetoric of the Federalist and Anti-Federalist movements. Who made up the body of each group? What did they think about the proposed Constitution? What were some of the primary arguments on each side?
Q:
What is the difference between enumerated and implied powers? How can these different concepts of political power impact the balance of power within the federal system of governance?
Q:
The U.S. Constitution was created through much compromise. Discuss some of the important compromises that developed during the Constitutional Convention in Philadelphia in the summer of 1787. How did these compromises impact our structure of government and its daily functions?
Q:
Americans, especially legal scholars, view the U.S. Constitution in different ways. Discuss the differences between the theories of strict constructionism versus the living constitution.
Q:
The writers of the U.S. Constitution intentionally created an amendment process that was difficult and infrequently used. The Equal Rights Amendment was originally presented for ratification in 1972. Discuss the outcome of this proposed constitutional amendment. Did it pass in Congress? The states? Was it ever ratified and enacted? If not, what were some of the reasons? Describe the process for amending the U.S. Constitution and discuss some of the hurdles that the ERA advocates encountered in the process.
Q:
Describe the Constitutional process for impeachment and removal of the president and include a discussion about the impeachment of President Clinton in 1998. Did the constitutional process work in this particular case? Why would the writers of the Constitution make this process so difficult?
Q:
In 1776, delegates to the Second Continental Congress appointed a committee to draft a document that would state their list of grievances and articulate their new intention to seek independence. List the writers of the Declaration of Independence, and name the primary writer and the reasons for (and objections to) his prominence. Discuss the philosophies and theories embodied in this revolutionary document.
Q:
Which political philosopher articulated the theory of separating government powers?
A.Hobbes
B.Locke
C.Montesquieu
D.Plato
E.Voltaire
Q:
Which state was the last to ratify the Constitution?
A.Connecticut
B.South Carolina
C.Maryland
D.Rhode Island
E.Georgia
Q:
The major division at the Constitutional Convention was essentially between
A.Democrats and Republicans.
B.Executive and Judicial powers.
C.Federalists and Anti-Federalists.
D.Hamilton and Jefferson.
E.free states and slave states.
Q:
Which two U.S. Presidents have been formally impeached?
A.Nixon and Harding
B.Clinton and Johnson
C.Jackson and Adams
D.Roosevelt and Taft
E.Coolidge and Hoover
Q:
The amendment process for the Constitution is described in
A.Article I.
B.Article II.
C.Article III.
D.Article IV.
E.Article V.
Q:
Article VI requires
A.that the federal government create no ex post facto laws.
B.all states honor the laws and official acts of the other states.
C.that states may not coin money.
D.that no religious test be required for holding any public office.
E.that all voters be knowledgeable of the Constitution.
Q:
The government established in the colonies after the Declaration of Independence was the
A.Constitution.
B.Federation Treaty.
C.Articles of Confederation.
D.Magna Carta.
E.Declaration of the Rights of Man.
Q:
What was the biggest weakness of the Articles of Confederation?
A.Lack of a national court in which British loyalists could sue Americans.
B.An overly powerful Congress and an anemic president.
C.The inability to maintain low taxes.
D.Lack of a strong national government.
E.Citizens trusted the national government more than the state governments.
Q:
The government established under the Articles of Confederation was unable to ensure that states abided by
A.The Treaty of Paris.
B.The Great Compromise.
C.Second Treatise on Civil Government.
D.The Townshend Acts.
E.The Virginia Plan.
Q:
The Stamp Act Congress was
A.an early attempt to write a constitution.
B.the first official meeting between the colonies.
C.a failed attempt in the colonies at a representative government.
D.evidence of direct democracy in the colonies.
E.evidence of indirect democracy in the colonies.
Q:
After the Constitutional Convention, those who opposed the drive for ratification were known as the
A.Whigs.
B.Republicans.
C.Anti-Federalists.
D.Tories.
E.Federalists.
Q:
The key elements of the New Jersey Plan excluded which of the following?
A.Strengthening the Articles of Confederation, not replacing them.
B.Giving Congress the ability to raise revenue from duties on imports and a postal service.
C.Creating a stronger executive branch and a weaker legislative branch than existed under the Articles of Confederation.
D.Creating a Supreme Court.
E.Creating a unicameral legislature with one vote for each state and representatives chosen by the states.
Q:
The core principles of the Virginia Plan were
A.a strong central government and a bicameral legislature.
B.a unicameral legislature with representation by population.
C.strong state governments and popular election of Supreme Court justices.
D.the ideal of one state having one vote and the addition of four new states.
E.economic and political features that replicated the European nation-state model.
Q:
The voting age was lowered to 18 by the ____________ Amendment.
A.Twenty-seventh
B.Twenty-sixth
C.Twenty-fifth
D.Eighteenth
E.Seventeenth
Q:
What was the Three-Fifths Compromise?
A.A three-fifths majority would be necessary to amend the constitution.
B.A three-fifths majority would be necessary to appoint members of the Supreme Court.
C.Three states would be "slave states," five states would be "free states," and the remaining states would be able to decide their own fate after 1820.
D.Each slave would count as three-fifths of one person for purposes of representation in the House.
E.An agreement reached by three-fifths of the states to revoke the Articles of Confederation and install the Constitution.
Q:
Which of the 13 original states was so opposed to the Constitutional Convention in Philadelphia in 1787 that it refused to send a delegate, so the U.S. Constitution was written without its participation?
A.New York
B.Virginia
C.Pennsylvania
D.Rhode Island
E.California
Q:
As evidenced in James Madison's Federalist #10, many of the writers of the Constitution were cautious regarding
A.the right of people to vote because they tended to rely on emotion rather than rationality.
B.factions, by which he meant groups of people motivated by a common economic and/or political interest.
C.the office of president.
D.the ability of the people to amend the Constitution and thus, in Madison's opinion, to undermine its authority.
E.state powers.
Q:
At the Constitutional Convention in 1787, the Federalists
A.strongly objected to ratification and enactment of the new constitution.
B.were opposed to a strong central government.
C.were in favor of a strong central government and for ratification of the new constitution.
D.favored states' rights and were opposed to any form of national government.
E.favored a central government only if the states were given veto powers over the central government.
Q:
The U.S. Constitution allows some powers while denying others. Such explicitly stated powers are referred to as
A.constitutionally mandated powers.
B.amended powers.
C.natural rights.
D.enumerated powers.
E.inherent powers.
Q:
The concept of strict constructionism requires that the Constitution
A.may be changed by the formal amendment process and not by discretionary Congressional actions or judicial rulings.
B.remain a flexible and fluid document that changes with the times.
C.may be modified only by rulings of the Supreme Court.
D.remain true to the intent of the writers of the Constitution, that it remain rigid and without any amendments.
E.should be modified as popular opinion changes.
Q:
The 1819 Supreme Court ruling in McCulloch v. Maryland seemed like a minor issue, but the ruling had a long-lasting impact. What was the primary impact of this ruling?
A.A national bank was unconstitutional.
B.The state of Maryland had every right under the Constitution to tax the federal government's property and assets in the state.
C.In some cases certain powers that are not explicitly given to the government in the Constitution may be considered "necessary and proper" and thus they are legitimate under the concept of the "living Constitution"
D.Congress acted improperly in creating the U.S. Department of the Treasury.
E.In ruling on matters involving the Constitution, the Supreme Court must adopt a "strict constructionist" approach and not read anything into the Constitution that is not explicitly stated.
Q:
Why was the Equal Rights Amendment not enacted in the 1970s?
A.There was very little support for the rights of women at the time.
B.Congress refused to act on the proposed amendment.
C.Though Congress approved the amendment, only thirty-five of the necessary thirty-eight state legislatures ratified the proposal within the required time limitation.
D.Congress approved the amendment and the state legislatures ratified, but the president would not sign the amendment into law.
E.It was ruled unconstitutional by the U.S. Supreme Court.
Q:
Including the Bill of Rights, the U.S. Constitution has been given how many amendments?
A.none
B.one
C.ten
D.twenty-seven
E.fifty-three
Q:
Why would the writers of the Constitution have created such a difficult amendment process?
A.They distrusted the motives of the people to make rational choices.
B.They protected the Constitution from short-lived or temporary passions.
C.They did not want any person or institution to tamper with their original work.
D.They ensured that the branches of government work together.
E.They distrusted the motives and abuses of powers by state governments.
Q:
What is the most common method used to amend the U.S. Constitution?
A.by a two-thirds vote in both chambers of Congress
B.by simple majority of the voters of the United States
C.by approval from two-thirds of the state legislatures and the signature of the president
D.by voter approval and the ruling of the Supreme Court on its constitutionality
E.by two-thirds of both chambers of Congress or two-thirds of state legislatures, then ratified by three-fourths of state legislatures
Q:
Which of the following is NOT true concerning the Bill of Rights in our U.S. Constitution?
A.The Bill of Rights was added as the first amendments to the Constitution after it was ratified by the states.
B.Several prominent members of the Constitutional Convention, such as James Madison, actually opposed the Bill of Rights.
C.Most states already had existing constitutions that enumerated the rights of the individual.
D.The Bill of Rights was a prominent element of the new Constitution and it was written into the document early in the process.
E.Several states at first refused to ratify the new Constitution because of its lack of a Bill of Rights.
Q:
The most effective complaint raised by the Anti-Federalists against the proposed Constitution in 1788 was
A.the inability of the states to tax the federal government.
B.its lack of state power to raise an army.
C.its lack of a bill of rights to protect individuals against abuses by the government.
D.the creation of the office of president.
E.the retention of too much power at the state level.