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Q:
5-methyl THF requires the action of which vitamin in order to form THF?
a. B12
b. B2
c. niacin
d. C
Q:
Which is NOT a fate of homocysteine in the cell?
a. methylated to methionine
b. used to restore tetrahydrofolate
c. used to synthesize cysteine
d. used in the synthesis of leucine
Q:
In the enzyme methionine synthase, vitamin B12 acts by accepting a _____ group from _____ and donating this group to _____ to form methionine.
a. carbon, methionine, folate
b. methyl, 5-methyltetrahydrofolate, homocysteine
c. methyl, formiminoglutamic acid, succinyl-CoA
d. carbon, serine, glycine
Q:
The degradation of _____ provides the majority of one-carbon groups for pyrimidine synthesis. In this process _____ is formed.
a. methionine, tetrahydrofolate
b. serine, 5,10-methylene tetrahydrofolate
c. uridine, tetrahydrofolate
d. homocysteine, 5-methyl tetrahydrofolate
Q:
Which of the following reflects long-term folate status?
a. serum folate
b. red blood cell folate
c. homocysteine concentration in blood
d. serum methylmalonic acid
Q:
Carbon in the one-carbon pool can be in the 5-methyl-THF form or the 5,10-methylene-THF form. Which statement is FALSE?
a. Both forms of carbon (methyl and methylene) can be used directly for thymidylate synthesis.
b. The methylene group of 5,10-methylene-THF can be oxidized to generate 5-methyl-THF and vice versa.
c. B12 is a cofactor for utilization of the methyl group in the conversion of homocysteine to methionine.
d. More than one is false.
Q:
To absorb folate consumed from green, leafy vegetables, _____.
a. phosphate groups much be removed by the action of alkaline phosphatase
b. glutamate must be transaminated to form alpha-ketoglutarate
c. glutamic acid molecules must be removed
d. glutamic acid molecules must be added
Q:
Folate in foods can only be absorbed in the monoglutamate form; therefore, digestive enzymes called _____ are important for folate nutriture.
a. hydrolases
b. lipases
c. conjugases
d. legumes
Q:
A deficiency of what vitamin is associated with these symptoms: hallucinations, lethargy, skin rash, alopecia, and muscle pain?
a. biotin
b. thiamin
c. vitamin C
d. vitamin B12
Q:
Biotin must be covalently bound to each of four different enzymes in order for them to carry out _____.
a. decarboxylations
b. oxidation-reduction reactions
c. transfer of acetate groups
d. carboxylations
Q:
Which three vitamins are involved in the synthesis of fatty acids?
a. biotin, vitamin D, thiamin
b. thiamin, riboflavin, niacin
c. niacin, biotin, pantothenic acid
d. riboflavin, B12, folate
Q:
Synthesis of coenzyme A starts with the phosphorylation of which vitamin?
a. pyridoxal phosphate
b. pantothenic acid
c. vitamin E
d. folic acid
Q:
Which of the water-soluble vitamins is found widely distributed in all plant and animal foods, which makes a deficiency unlikely?
a. riboflavin
b. folic acid
c. pantothenic acid
d. pyridoxine
Q:
Which classical vitamin deficiency is known for the four Ds: dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea, and death?
a. thiamin
b. niacin
c. biotin
d. folic acid
Q:
Which vitamin has a reduced coenzyme form important for fatty acid and cholesterol synthesis that is a product of the pentose phosphate pathway?
a. niacin
b. thiamin
c. riboflavin
d. vitamin C
Q:
When the diet is adequate in protein, the body can synthesize niacin from which amino acid?
a. phenylalanine
b. valine
c. tyrosine
d. tryptophan
Q:
Cheilosis is a symptom of a dietary deficiency of which vitamin?
a. niacin
b. ascorbic acid
c. riboflavin
d. biotin
Q:
Riboflavin coenzymes remain bound to their enzymes during the oxidation-reduction reactions and the complexes are called _____.
a. apoenzymes
b. flavokinases
c. bound enzymes
d. flavoproteins
Q:
The most common tests of thiamin status include all the following EXCEPT:
a. static tests of urinary thiamin metabolites.
b. a static test of serum thiamin.
c. an in vitro functional test of RBC enzyme.
d. in vivo functional tests.
Q:
Erythrocyte transketolase activity is an assay to assess the status of:
a. thiamin.
b. B6.
c. riboflavin.
d. B12.
Q:
A consequence of thiamin deficiency is:
a. pellagra.
b. megaloblastic anemia.
c. beriberi.
d. rickets.
Q:
Thiamin is important to fatty acid synthesis due to its requirement as a coenzyme for the pentose phosphate pathway enzyme _____.
a. dopamine monooxygenase
b. transketolase
c. alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
d. phenylalanine hydroxylase
Q:
A major role for thiamin is:
a. energy transformation.
b. blood coagulation.
c. collagen formation.
d. erythrocyte synthesis.
Q:
Ascorbic acid may act as a pro-oxidant by:
a. reducing ferrous iron.
b. mobilizing ferric iron from storage.
c. reacting with transferrin-bound iron.
d. reducing dehydroascorbic acid.
Q:
The RDA for vitamin C for adult men is _____ and the UL is _____.
a. 75 mg, 500 mg
b. 100 mg, 500 mg
c. 90 mg, 2000 mg
d. 200 mg, 2000 mg
Q:
The necessity of ascorbic acid for its role in _____ is believed to be the reason that people with scurvy have no energy and are very tired.
a. collagen synthesis
b. creatine synthesis
c. hormone activation
d. carnitine synthesis
Q:
Describe the female athlete triad.
Q:
Describe how the effects of anorexia nervosa are similar to the effects of starvation.
Q:
How does the restricting type of anorexia nervosa differ from the binge-eating/ purging type?
Q:
Statistically, what percentage of individuals with anorexia nervosa recover completely?
a. about 50%
b. about 30%
c. about 25%
d. about 15%
Q:
The typical bulimic _____.
a. is overly concerned with losing weight and being very thin.
b. seeks to eat without gaining weight.
c. is usually diagnosed with the female athlete triad.
d. characteristically experiences premature osteoporosis.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT true regarding anorexia?
a. Of psychiatric disorders, anorexia has the highest mortality rate.
b. Anorectics simply restrict calories severely and never binge and purge.
c. People with anorexia have a distorted body image and fear weight gain.
d. Anorectics often consume less than 800 kcal per day.
Q:
Explain the principles underlying the use of doubly labeled water to assess total energy expenditure. Include a discussion of the main source of error.
Q:
Explain the difference between direct calorimetry and indirect calorimetry.
Q:
Describe 3 methods of assessing body composition and give the pros and cons of each method.
Q:
Match each clinically useful method or index with the trait that it estimates.Method or Index 1) BMI 2) IBW3) Katch and McArdle equation4) Desirable body weight calculation5) Harris-Benedict equationTrait Estimateda. resting metabolic rate in kcal per day b. appropriateness of an individual's weight for height c. ideal body weight for height d. percent body fat from anthropometric measurements e. appropriate body weight target when reducing body fat to a lower level
Q:
Match each clinically useful method or index with the formula for its calculation.Method or Index1) BMI2) IBW3) Katch and McArdle equation4) Desirable body weight calculation5) Harris-Benedict equationFormulaa. 66.5 + (13.7 x weight in kg) + (5.0 x height in cm) - (6.8 x age in years)b. weight in kilograms divided by the square of height in metersc. 110 lb + 5 lb/in > 5 ftd. 0.43 (triceps fold in mm) + 0.58 (subscapular fold in mm) + 1.47e. lean body weight divided by (1 - % fat desired)
Q:
Indicate whether the statements is true or false. If the statement is false, explain why it is false.
The term lean body mass allows for the presence of a small amount of essential fat required for physiological functioning.
Q:
Indicate whether the statements is true or false. If the statement is false, explain why it is false.
Magnetic resonance imaging, a method for assessing body composition, involves the use of isotopes such as deuterium, radioactive tritium, or oxygen-18.
Q:
Indicate whether the statements is true or false. If the statement is false, explain why it is false.
Recent evidence strongly suggests that bone density and lean body mass are not significantly affected by heredity.
Q:
Indicate whether the statements is true or false. If the statement is false, explain why it is false.
Five sites commonly used for measuring skin fold thickness are the triceps, subscapula, suprailiac, abdomen, and thigh.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a suggested reason for the effectiveness of a high-protein weight-loss diet?
a. Protein provides satiety over a longer period of time.
b. Thermogenesis from protein is greater.
c. Dyslipidemia is altered by high protein intake.
d. Fat-free mass is preserved and basal metabolism is maintained.
Q:
Which of the following hormones or molecules increases the urge to eat?
a. leptin
b. ghrelin
c. adiponectin
d. insulin
Q:
What is the IBW of the woman in question #25, calculated using the modified Devine formula?
a. 127 lb
b. 130 lb
c. 137 lb
d. 140 lb
Q:
The present diet of the student in question #25 provides 2500 kcal per day. This diet:
a. is meeting her kcal needs.
b. needs to be increased by 300 kcal.
c. would cause about 1 lb per week weight loss.
d. would cause weight gain of about 0.5 lb per week.
Q:
A 25-year-old female college student weighs 137 lb and is 5"6" tall and has a medium frame. She is consuming approximately 2500 kcal daily. What are her total energy needs? (RMR + diet-induced thermogenesis + physical activity = total energy expenditure.) The Harris-Benedict equation for women is 655.1 + (9.56 x W) + (1.85 x H) " (4.7 x A). Use 1.5 for the physical activity factor.a. 1443b. 1587c. 2165d. 2309
Q:
Mr. Q., age 62, is 5"10" tall, weighs 150 pounds, and leads a sedentary life. The Harris-Benedict equation for men is 66.5 + (13.7 x W) + (5.0 x H) " (6.8 x A). Using the Harris-Benedict equation, calculate Mr. Q's RMR.a. RMR = 1468 kcal/dayb. RMR = 1614 kcal/dayc. RMR = 1790 kcal/dayd. RMR = 2311 kcal/day
Q:
The estimated energy requirements equations developed by the Food and Nutrition Board were based on
a. data from indirect calorimetry.
b. body surface area.
c. data from total daily energy expenditure measured by the doubly labeled water method.
d. body weight raised to the power of three-fourths.
Q:
Which of the following methods of estimating energy expenditure does NOT require knowledge of the individual's age?
a. doubly labeled water method
b. Harris-Benedict prediction equation
c. Mifflin-St. Jeor equation
d. estimated energy requirement equation
Q:
Which method of estimating energy expenditure requires the measurement of food intake?
a. doubly labeled water method
b. Harris-Benedict prediction equation
c. Mifflin-St. Jeor equation
d. estimated energy requirement equation
Q:
In a clinical setting, which RQ suggests that the patient is synthesizing fat?
a. <0.70
b. <0.80
c. <0.90
d. 1.00
Q:
What is the RQ for an ordinary mixed diet of carbohydrate, protein, and fat?
a. 0.75
b. 0.80
c. 0.85
d. 0.15
Q:
When oxidized, which nutrient(s) provide(s) the lowest respiratory quotient?
a. carbohydrate
b. protein
c. fat
d. mixed diet
Q:
Thermoregulation refers to _____.
a. alterations in metabolism to maintain body core temperature
b. alterations in food energy due to cooking
c. the increase in energy expenditure associated with the body's processing of food
d. the body's storage of food as fat for insulation
Q:
Thermogenesis is the
a. generation of water.
b. burning of fat.
c. synthesis of fat.
d. generation of heat.
Q:
Which of the following contributes the highest thermic effect of food?
a. fats
b. mixed diet with at least 50% carbohydrate
c. carbohydrates
d. proteins
Q:
The thermic effect of food represents _____.
a. the BMR minus the energy used in physical activity
b. the decrease in food energy due to cooking
c. the increase in energy expenditure associated with the body's processing of food
d. the body's storage of food as fat for insulation
Q:
Basal metabolic rate represents _____.
a. the rate of energy expenditure that sustains basic life processes in all cells in the awake state
b. the rate of energy expenditure when the body is at rest and no food has been eaten in 4 hours
c. minimal energy expenditure over a period of 24 hours
d. all energy expenditure except that is attributable to physical activity
Q:
Obesity has grown rapidly in the last 30 years and is associated with increased risk for which of the following disorders?
a. stunting, wasting
b. stroke, sleep apnea
c. osteoporosis, osteopenia
d. hepatitis, tuberculosis
Q:
Quantification of total body water or total body potassium by the use of _____ permits calculation of body composition.
a. neutron activation
b. infrared light
c. high-frequency ultrasonic energy
d. radioactive or stable isotopes
Q:
Bioelectrical impedance analysis, a method used to determine body composition, is based on which principle?
a. Atomic nuclei behave like magnets when an external magnetic field is applied across the body.
b. Adipose tissue is denser than lean body tissue.
c. Electrical conductivity is greater in lean tissue than in adipose tissue.
d. Fat-free mass is proportional to total body potassium.
Q:
Which of the following techniques for measuring body composition makes use of small exposures to radiation?
a. MRI
b. DEXA
c. TOBEC
d. BIA
Q:
Which of the following techniques for measuring body composition is best for determining regional body composition?
a. hydrodensitometry
b. computerized (axial) tomography
c. total body water
d. bioelectrical impedance
Q:
Hydrostatic or underwater weighing, a method used to determine body composition, is based on which principle?
a. Lean body tissue is denser than adipose tissue.
b. Adipose tissue is denser than lean body tissue.
c. Adipose tissue is composed mostly of water.
d. Body fluids are not being weighed using this method.
Q:
Waist circumferences of >40 inches in men and >35 inches in women may be used to identify increased _____.
a. risk for the development of obesity-associated conditions
b. subcutaneous fat
c. peripheral fat distribution
d. age
Q:
Which body component comprises more diverse tissues?
a. lean body mass
b. fat mass
Q:
In the reference man and woman, respectively, what percentage of body weight is fat?
a. 10, 20
b. 15, 27
c. 30, 40
d. 45, 55
Q:
What is the BMI of a man who weighs 220 lbs and is 6 feet tall?
a. 54.7
b. 36.7
c. 29.9
d. 24.9
Q:
Which of the following represents a BMI range considered to be healthy for most adult men and women?
a. 10-14
b. 15-18
c. 19-24
d. 25-30
Q:
Body mass index (BMI) is one way to estimate
a. appropriate weight for height.
b. actual body adiposity.
c. body fat distribution.
d. risk factors associated with obesity.
Q:
Discuss the effects of lifestyle modifications on metabolic syndrome.
Q:
How can metabolic syndrome be reversed during its early stages?
a. administration of statins
b. insulin or metformin administration
c. loss of at least 7% of body weight
d. loss of at least 15% of body weight
Q:
Metabolic syndrome is a cluster of factors in one individual that causes increased risk for all of the following EXCEPT _____.
a. cardiovascular disease
b. chronic kidney disease
c. type 2 diabetes
d. type 1 diabetes
Q:
Which of the following measurements is NOT used to diagnosis metabolic syndrome?
a. waist circumference
b. blood levels of triacylglycerols
c. blood levels of LDL-cholesterol
d. blood pressure
Q:
Explain the role of the catecholamines in muscle glycogenolysis.
Q:
A fed vs. fasted question - IN GENERAL, describe how opposing pathways are regulated during fasting vs. fed conditions. What are the primary signals involved? What would be an example of 2 opposing pathways? How is one pathway favored over the other (you don"t need to name specific proteins/ enzymes here)?
Q:
Explain how endurance training increases an athlete's ability to perform more aerobically.
Q:
Pick two (2) of the examples from question #3 and indicate specifically how the signal you indicated in your answer is altering the pathway listed. For each example, write a one-sentence answer that includes the condition, the signals, the mechanism, the protein/ enzyme, the tissue, and the result (all underlined in the example below).Example: Under fed conditions, high blood glucose leads to insulin secretion by the pancreas, which in turn induces expression of the key glycolytic enzyme phosphofructokinase in all cells, thereby increasing glycolysis.
Q:
"The Big Picture" " Metabolic Integration. Metabolic pathways are regulated to maintain homeostasis in the face of changing environmental conditions, such as nutrient supply. Describe how this is accomplished during the fed-fast cycle; i.e., the progression from a fed state, to a postabsorptive/ fasting state, to starvation, to prolonged starvation. Your answer should include specific processes/ metabolic pathways that are favored under each conditionmake sure to cover pathways that are important to all three macronutrients (CHOs, lipids, protein). Also indicate the signal(s) involved in modulating these pathways. An example is provided in the table.FedPostabsorptive/ FastingStarvationProlonged Starvation↑ glycolysis
Q:
We discussed three (3) systems that play a role in supplying energy during movement/ exercise. Name these three systems, describe briefly how they supply energy, and discuss the temporal relationship between them during prolonged exercise. Any figures should be completely labeled and explained.