Q&A Hero

Q: a) Orientationb) Employee trainingc) Change agentd) Simulatione) Organizational culturef) Encounter stageg) Intergroup developmenth) Pre-post-training performance with control group methodi) Survey feedbackj) Pre-post-training performance methodk) Vestibule trainingl) Job rotationm) Employee hand bookn) Kirkpatrick's modelo) OnboardingA booklet describing important aspects of employment an employee needs to know.

Q: a) Orientationb) Employee trainingc) Change agentd) Simulatione) Organizational culturef) Encounter stageg) Intergroup developmenth) Pre-post-training performance with control group methodi) Survey feedbackj) Pre-post-training performance methodk) Vestibule trainingl) Job rotationm) Employee hand bookn) Kirkpatrick's modelo) OnboardingLateral transfers that allow employees to work at different jobs.

Q: a) Orientationb) Employee trainingc) Change agentd) Simulatione) Organizational culturef) Encounter stageg) Intergroup developmenth) Pre-post-training performance with control group methodi) Survey feedbackj) Pre-post-training performance methodk) Vestibule trainingl) Job rotationm) Employee hand bookn) Kirkpatrick's modelo) OnboardingAn activity that enhances employees' specific skills and abilities so that they can immediately perform their jobs.

Q: a) Orientationb) Employee trainingc) Change agentd) Simulatione) Organizational culturef) Encounter stageg) Intergroup developmenth) Pre-post-training performance with control group methodi) Survey feedbackj) Pre-post-training performance methodk) Vestibule trainingl) Job rotationm) Employee hand bookn) Kirkpatrick's modelo) OnboardingThe system of sharing meaning within the organization that determines how employees act.

Q: a) Orientationb) Employee trainingc) Change agentd) Simulatione) Organizational culturef) Encounter stageg) Intergroup developmenth) Pre-post-training performance with control group methodi) Survey feedbackj) Pre-post-training performance methodk) Vestibule trainingl) Job rotationm) Employee hand bookn) Kirkpatrick's modelo) OnboardingThe activities involved in introducing new employees to the organization and their work unit.

Q: a) Orientationb) Employee trainingc) Change agentd) Simulatione) Organizational culturef) Encounter stageg) Intergroup developmenth) Pre-post-training performance with control group methodi) Survey feedbackj) Pre-post-training performance methodk) Vestibule trainingl) Job rotationm) Employee hand bookn) Kirkpatrick's modelo) OnboardingProvides different perspectives from which the outcomes of training may be evaluated.

Q: a) Orientationb) Employee trainingc) Change agentd) Simulatione) Organizational culturef) Encounter stageg) Intergroup developmenth) Pre-post-training performance with control group methodi) Survey feedbackj) Pre-post-training performance methodk) Vestibule trainingl) Job rotationm) Employee hand bookn) Kirkpatrick's modelo) OnboardingThe socialization stage where individuals confront the possible dichotomy between their organizational expectations and reality.

Q: a) Orientationb) Employee trainingc) Change agentd) Simulatione) Organizational culturef) Encounter stageg) Intergroup developmenth) Pre-post-training performance with control group methodi) Survey feedbackj) Pre-post-training performance methodk) Vestibule trainingl) Job rotationm) Employee hand bookn) Kirkpatrick's modelo) OnboardingAlso known as socialization which takes place as individuals attempt to learn the values and norms of work roles.

Q: The bulk of cross-cultural training is language training.

Q: It is easy to evaluate a training program that teaches managers better communication skills.

Q: Post-training performance methods evaluate training programs based on how well employees can perform their jobs after training.

Q: Leadership plays a minor role as an organization moves to become a learning organization.

Q: Organization development facilitates system-wide change in an organization.

Q: Simulation training typically involves some major emotional and physical challenge, such as, white-water rafting or mountain climbing.

Q: Job rotation moves employees horizontally or vertically to expand their skills, knowledge, or abilities.

Q: Employee training focuses on an employee's future personal growth.

Q: One type of training that facilitates learning by using the same equipment that one actually will use on the job but in a simulated work environment is vestibule training.

Q: Research suggests that only employees with management potential can be developed.

Q: A well-designed employee handbook will only include the company policies and an explanation of employee benefits.

Q: New-employee orientation is the system of sharing meaning within the company that determines how employees act.

Q: Metamorphosis is complete when the new employee becomes comfortable with the organization and their work teams.

Q: Socialization can be conceptualized as a process made of two phases: encounter and metamorphosis.

Q: Socialization is a process of adaptation that takes place as individuals attempt to learn the values and norms of work roles.

Q: What type of training evaluation is conducted only after the training period, and the effectiveness is based on how well employees can perform their jobs. a) Post-training performance method b) Control group performance method c) Pre-training performance method d) Post-training survey method e) Pre-post-training performance method

Q: What type of training would be most effective in a field where errors can be life threatening or cost prohibitive? a) Decision games b) Role plays c) Simulations d) Case studies e) Adventure training

Q: Technology, the global economy, and changing consumer tastes all support the white-water rapids metaphor. This metaphor supports the idea that: a) the driving forces of change direct behavior away from the status quo. b) business environments are uncertain and dynamic. c) restraining forces hinder movement from the existing equilibrium. d) business environments can be stable and predictable. e) after unfreezing the status quo, a new state of being can be refrozen.

Q: Which of the following best describes organization development? a) The assessment of employees' perceptions and attitudes regarding the organization b) The enforcement of values and continued learning to gain a competitive advantage c) An attempt to achieve cohesion among different work groups d) An organizational activity that assists with implementing planned change e) The preparation of an employee for an international assignment

Q: Culture based on a shared vision and the inherent interrelationships among processes, activities, functions, and external environments are part of: a) OD techniques. b) intergroup development. c) leadership effectiveness. d) international assignments. e) learning organizations.

Q: When an overseas assignment is completed, the organization has different options for the returning expatriate. Which of the following is the least desirable option for the organization? a) The returning expatriate begins the repatriation process by being assigned to a domestic position. b) The returning expatriate seeks retirement in the United States. c) The returning expatriate is terminated because the organization has no suitable openings. d) The returning expatriate is preparing for another overseas assignment. e) The returning expatriate seeks retirement in the country in which he or she spent the past few years.

Q: Your friend, George, has an opportunity to take an overseas assignment for his organization. He's single and likes to travel. The only problem he sees is that he does not speak the language well. What do you tell him? a) Don"t worry. Everyone speaks English. b) Don"t go. You won"t be able to work there or live there. c) Get a good interpreter who understands your business. Learn some social phrases and try to communicate in the local language. d) Stay in the United States until you are fluent in the language. e) Take Richard, our old roommate, along. His grandmother was born there. He knows the language and the culture and you two would have a great time.

Q: Which of the following is true regarding cross-cultural training? a) Cross-cultural training is necessary only for expatriate managers, not their families. b) Cross-cultural training is necessary only before foreign assignments. c) Cross-cultural training is necessary only during foreign assignments. d) Cross-cultural training is necessary before, during, and after foreign assignments. e) Cross-cultural training is necessary only after foreign assignments.

Q: Which of the following training evaluation methods is the least valid? a) Pre-post training performance method b) Trainees' reactions to the training c) Pre-post training performance with control group method d) Trainees' changes in behaviors e) Trainees' changes in skills

Q: Cultural sensitivity is most often taught to employees before overseas assignments through which of these techniques? a) Lectures, movies b) Video recordings and embassy tours c) Interactive simulations and lectures d) Role playing, simulations, and meeting former international assignees e) Meeting with foreign correspondents and watching the media

Q: Rahim, director of training for a large hospital, has developed a new "Tender, loving care" nurse training program. He plans to measure patient satisfaction in ten wards, and then put nurses from half of the wards through the new program. Four months later he will measure patient satisfaction again. What training evaluation method is Rahim using? a) Supervisor and incumbent opinion b) Test-retest method c) Pre-post performance method d) Pre-post training performance with control group method e) Post training performance method

Q: Sayjolol, director of training for a large manufacturing organization, has developed a workplace diversity appreciation program. All employees are interviewed a month after attending the program. They are asked about any workplace behaviors that did not exhibit diversity appreciation and their actions in those situations. What training evaluation method is Sayjolol using? a) Supervisor and incumbent opinion b) Test-retest method c) Pre-post performance method d) Pre-post training performance with control group method e) Post training performance method

Q: Fernando, director of training for a large choral ensemble, is evaluating a new training program to improve performance skills for all singers. He has gathered performance information about mistakes and miscues in performance, number of practices required for quality, the number of practices interrupted by personality issues or timing factors, and other work-related indicators. He plans to compare similar figures gathered next season after employees complete the course. What training evaluation method is Fernando using? a) Supervisor and incumbent opinion. b) Test-retest method. c) Pre-post training performance method. d) Pre-post training performance with control group method. e) Employee inventory.

Q: Which of the following is an advantage of allowing team members to have an equal say when interviewing job candidates? a) Employees feel less threatened by the candidate because they know the candidate better. b) There is less prejudice against a candidate, even if the job was previously held by a favorite coworker. c) There is greater likelihood the team and the hiring manager will agree on strengths of the candidate. d) The team will have more of an interest in helping the new hire succeed. e) There is less resentment and fewer dilemmas after the candidate has been hired or rejected.

Q: Many companies only provide limited information during a reference check. Is there a value to calling and checking the references today? a) No, an employer can find more information by looking at a candidate's social media. b) Yes, a past employer's reaction to the request can provide significant information about the candidate. c) No, an employer is limited in the types of information he or she can provide, most of which can be found elsewhere. d) Yes, past employers and coworkers are often very open and honest when a candidate no longer works for them. e) No, the concept of qualified privilege inhibits the value of any type of reference check.

Q: Which type of interview evaluates a candidate based on actions taken to resolve a situation and the outcome of the action? a) Stress b) Directive c) Unstructured d) Comprehensive e) Behavioral

Q: Which type of interview is best in determining how a candidate might resolve future job issues? a) Unstructured b) One-on-one c) Directive d) Behavioral e) Stress

Q: What can be used to replace traditional telephone screening interviews? a) Social media site views b) E-mail c) Online interviews d) Instant messaging e) Pre-employment testing

Q: What are the advantages of using social media sites to research a job candidate? a) Social media sites allow employers to ensure due diligence in investigating potential employees. b) Social media sites allow employers to find information that might be illegal to ask about during the interview. c) Candidates tend to be more honest on social media sites than in person. d) Social media sites can be controlled with privacy settings, ensuring only the most relevant information is accessible. e) Social media sites can be viewed by all members of the interview team, so everyone has the same level of knowledge.

Q: How should social media be used when ensuring an employer is using job-related criteria for investigating potential employees? a) The same social media sites should be used for every candidate. b) Social media should be looked at only after a face-to-face interview. c) Social media should be viewed only by the hiring manager. d) Social media should be completely avoided. e) Social media should be viewed to find information that is typically illegal to ask about during the interview.

Q: When using a cut score, a validity coefficient close to one is good. What does that mean? a) There is a strong positive correlation between an individual's test score and his or her job performance. b) The meta-analysis has reduced discrepancies in all of the testing criteria results. c) The measure has uniformity. d) There is a strong relationship between the applicants this year and applicants from a year ago. e) One recruiter can analyze up to 1000 applicant scores a day. This number is the same as the z-score.

Q: Which of the following is NOT true regarding international assignments? a) They require greater attention to personality factors. b) They require greater attention to the applicant's marital status. c) They require greater attention to the applicant's health. d) They require greater attention to the applicant's gender. e) They require greater attention to the applicant's marital history.

Q: Dan, a recruiter for a technology company in the research triangle, has started doing open-house recruiting for network troubleshooters. Which of the following is evidence of that process? a) He lowered the cut score on the skills test to 40, the number that indicates satisfactory basic skill requirements. b) He places ads in the Raleigh paper advertising that the firm is open every Wednesday evening from 6 to 9pm, for tours and information sessions. Free beer and pizza. c) Turnover rates have decreased. d) The reliability index is zero. e) He eliminated the skills test and hired 4 additional recruiters to visit college campus job fairs.

Q: Ian, in charge of selection, wants to decrease the size of his applicant pool for entry level electrical workers. This job, like most in his organization, requires an employment test. What should he do? a) Stop using the employment test. b) Lower the cut score on the employment test. c) Raise the cut score on the employment test. d) Increase the concurrent validity of the employment test. e) Increase the reliability of the employment test.

Q: Correlation coefficients are used to demonstrate the statistical relationships existing between an individual's test score and her/his performance. The correlation coefficients can range in magnitude from a) zero to +1. b) zero to -1. c) - 1 to +1. d) -100 to +100. e) -2 to +2.

Q: Sancho, a banker, has been trying to find a new loan officer assistant for 6 months. What advice do you, as a human resource professional, have for him about using tests for concurrent or predictive validity? Both are available in the organization. a) Current employees and applicants are very similar. Use the least expensive measure. b) There may be little similarity between current employees and applicants. Use the concurrent measures. c) There may be little similarity between current applicants and past applicants. Use predictive measures. d) There may be little similarity between current applicants and past applicants. Use concurrent measures. e) There may be little similarity between current employees and applicants. Use the predictive measures.

Q: Josh was not hired for a job as a dump truck driver because he scored below 40 on the emotional intelligence test, even though he scored a perfect 100 on a driving and dumping test. He challenged this in court, contending that this employment test does not have a) predictive validity. b) reliability. c) content validity. d) validity analysis. e) contaminant validity.

Q: Connie hires cash register operators for a large grocery chain. She gives basic mathematics tests to applicants six months after they are hired and compares the scores to their performance evaluations. What is Connie doing? a) Establishing predictive validity. b) Confirming reliability. c) Monitoring reliable validity. d) Establishing concurrent validity. e) Evaluating concept inferences.

Q: Jan runs a temporary agency that provides experienced IT professionals. She gives a virus laden IT network to job candidates and an hour to get it running as part of the selection process. She does not hire based on this test, but compares their scores to their job performance evaluations after the first two job assignments. She is using this test for a) predictive validity. b) constraint validity. c) content validity. d) reliability. e) discriminant analysis.

Q: Correlation coefficients used to demonstrate the statistical relationships existing between an individual's test score and her/his performance are called a) reliability coefficients. b) significant coefficients. c) validity coefficients. d) canonical coefficients. e) empirical coefficients.

Q: John's conditional job offer has been rescinded by the Grace Hospital. His prior employer referred Grace to the public records of John's criminal drug activity in that city. Is this action legal? a) Yes, under bona fide occupational qualification. b) Yes, under qualified privilege. c) Yes, under reasonable accommodation. d) No, under reasonable accommodation. e) No, under qualified privilege.

Q: Service International is using an aptitude test in its selection process. It appears that individuals who received high scores on the aptitude test ended up performing very poorly on the job after they were hired. What type of problem does this test seem to have? a) A predictive validity problem b) A reliability problem c) A content validity problem d) A construct validity problem e) A concurrent validity problem

Q: A-Frame Manufacturing is using a job knowledge test in its selection process. It appears that the test content omits knowledge about important tasks necessary to effectively perform the job. What type of problem does this test seem to have? a) A predictive validity problem b) A reliability problem c) A content validity problem d) A construct validity problem e) A concurrent validity problem

Q: Why do organizations conduct background checks on potential employees? a) To identify good work team opportunities. b) To comply with ADA regulations for reasonable accommodation. c) The FLSA requires credit history on all hourly workers d) Past behavior is a good predictor of future behavior. e) Most internal investigators have been reassigned from line responsibilities.

Q: Company XYZ is using an aptitude test to measure the applicants' cognitive abilities. The score of the test can vary from 10 to 100. A score of 10 indicates very low cognitive abilities whereas a score of 100 indicates exceptional cognitive abilities. A job candidate, Robert, received a score of 87 when he took the test in April. Robert took the test again (same test) in June. However, the second time his score was only 42. What type of problem may this test have? a) A predictive validity problem b) A reliability problem c) A content validity problem d) A construct validity problem e) A concurrent validity problem

Q: Yu Chen, one of your most valued employees, has decided to leave your organization after 20 years of exceptional service. His decision took you completely by surprise and you have to fill the position quickly. To make sure you do not make a mistake and hire the wrong person, you should do all of the following EXCEPT a) Conduct a reference checking without the applicant's knowledge. b) Don"t panic. Hire a temporary worker during the transition. c) Update the list of job requirements, duties, and responsibilities so that you and the job candidate will understand the expectations of the position. d) Before you extend an offer, check references. e) During a job interview, ask appropriate questions, such as the long and short-term goals of the applicant.

Q: Studies of realistic job previews show that they a) increase turnover and increase acceptance rates. b) reduce turnover and reduce acceptance rates. c) challenge even the best HR professionals to explain the discrepancies. d) reduce turnover without lowering acceptance rates. e) reduce participation rates among majority applicants.

Q: Who should make the actual hiring decision? a) The HR manager b) The general manager c) The recruiter d) The manager in the department where the vacancy exists e) The compensation and benefits manager

Q: Which of the following is NOT true regarding realistic job previews? a) Realistic job previews provide applicants with favorable and unfavorable information about the job and organization. b) Realistic job previews help increase job survival among new employees. c) Giving the applicants a realistic job preview before offering them the job lowers acceptance rates. d) Giving the applicants a realistic job preview before offering them the job reduces turnover without lowering acceptance rates. e) Applicants who receive a realistic job preview tend to have more realistic expectations about the job.

Q: The value of the interview in the hiring process has been affirmed for which of these reasons? a) Impression management is a good job success predictor. b) The interviewer often holds a stereotype of what represents a "good" applicant. c) Positive information is given the highest weight. d) Most interviewers exhibit an unusually strong ability to recall detailed information with great accuracy. e) Organizational "fit" often determines how long an employee will stay with the organization.

Q: Daniel is an experienced interviewer for a large service organization. He has just asked a job candidate what she would do in this scenario: "You show up for a routine meeting. The client greets you, angry, yelling, and waving a piece of paper in your face that he asserts contains a billing error. How do you handle the situation?" What is Daniel doing? a) Screening review b) Panel interview c) Serial interview d) Behavioral interview e) Stress interview

Q: XYZ Corporation is a U.S. company with operations in 25 countries. The company is in the process of hiring a British general manager for one of its manufacturing facilities in Northern England. Which of the following tests should XYZ Corporation use to select the British general manager? a) A polygraph test b) A psychological profile test c) An integrity test d) A graphology test e) None of the above

Q: What advice does your text give to organizations that want to use employment testing in the global arena? a) Employment testing is illegal in Asia. b) Practices must be adapted to cultures in which the organization operates. c) Practices must be approved by the United Nations. d) Home country nationals are required to pass local tests. e) Graphology is illegal in all countries.

Q: During the interview process, an acceptable question to ask is a) Do you own your own home? b) When did you graduate from college? c) Do you have a college degree? d) How many children do you have? e) Where are you from originally?

Q: Why are performance simulation tests used more often today instead of written tests in the selection process? a) Employment tests are more expensive than performance simulation tests. b) It is easier to train an interviewer to administrate a performance simulation test than an employment test. c) Performance simulation tests more easily meet the criteria of job-relatedness because they evaluate actual job behaviors. d) Employment tests are conducted after hiring decisions are made, not during the selection process. e) Literacy rates are 15% lower than they were a decade ago.

Q: Tosi is interviewing for a managerial job with a global manufacturer. He has been screened and he completed the application form. He routed 20 documents in an inbox successfully. Now he is in a group with 4 other candidates, making a stick model of a new product. Later today he is scheduled for a personality test. These activities identify which stage of the selection process?a) Work samplingb) Comprehensive interviewc) Assessment centerd) Physical characteristic evaluatione) No stage. They are just waiting

Q: Helaine, a recruiter at Company ABC, is in the process of hiring an office manager. An important success factor for this position is the ability to "fit in" with the firm's culture. Helaine is planning to use an interview to evaluate the extent to which job applicants are likely to fit in at Company ABC. What selection device should Helaine choose? a) A cultural fit test b) A stress interview c) An integrity test d) A comprehensive interview e) A work sample test

Q: Ahmad, a veteran manager in the fast-food business, applied for a manager position at a fast-food restaurant when he relocated because of health reasons. He was told he did not get the job because he did not have a high school diploma. Although that was not stated as a job requirement for manager positions, he learned that the application form he completed was the same one used for counter workers. That form is legally weighted to consider education level. He can use which of the following as a basis for legal challenge? a) None of these items should be weighted more heavily than any of the others. b) Application items were not validated for the manager positions. c) Prior job experience should be weighted more heavily than educational background. d) Educational background should be weighted more heavily than prior job experience. e) Application forms cannot be used in this way.

Q: Anthony, vice-president of human resources, wants to decrease turnover for counter workers at a fast food chain. He examined work application forms over the last five years and discovered the following information: 50% of employees who stayed less than 90 days had no prior work experience; 50% of employees who stayed longer than 1 year held more than 2 previous jobs; 80% of employees who stayed less than 90 days held less than a high school degree; 80% of employees who stayed more than a year held a high school degree; 40% of employees who indicated only weekend work schedules left within 90 days; 45% of workers who indicated no weekend work schedules left within 90 days. What should he do? a) Raise work experience requirements for the job. b) Lower work experience requirements for the job. c) Weight prior job experience more heavily than educational level. d) Weight educational level more heavily than prior job experience. e) Do not require weekend work schedules.

Q: Why do some organizations use application forms with age, gender or religious questions, since civil rights legislation has made it illegal to discriminate on the basis of such criteria? a) These items may be job-related. b) EEO legislation has no jurisdiction over application forms. c) They may be used to identify protected classes. d) They are used to supply adverse impact. e) No organizations use these categories.

Q: Application forms typically include all of the following EXCEPT a) a statement giving the employer the right to dismiss an employee for falsifying information. b) a statement that employment is not guaranteed. c) permission for the employer to obtain previous work history. d) name, address, and telephone number. e) marital status.

Q: What is the main advantage of work sampling over traditional pencil-and-paper tests? a) Compared to pencil-and-paper tests, work sampling is applicable to all levels of the organization. b) It is easier to develop good work samples. c) Work sampling tends to be a better predictor of short-term performance. d) Work sampling is easier to use for managerial positions. e) None of the above.

Q: What is the percentage of all organizations in the United States that use some type of employment test? a) About 80 percent b) About 60 percent c) About 45 percent d) About 35 percent e) About 25 percent

Q: What is the difference between a conditional job offer and a permanent job offer? a) The conditional job offer is made when employment tests are passed. The permanent job offer is made when background checks are passed. b) The conditional job offer is made by the recruiter. The permanent job offer is made by the interviewer. c) The conditional job offer is made after salary is set. The permanent job offer is based on performance expectations, before salary is set. d) Conditional job offers are made to hourly workers. Permanent job offers are made to salaried workers. e) The conditional job offer is made before the initial screening. The permanent job offer is made after medical requirements are met.

Q: All of the following are performed during the initial screening and help minimize selection costs EXCEPT a) Discussing details of the job description. b) Revealing low salary range data. c) Describing benefits, especially medical care. d) Holding telephone call interviews. e) All of the above.

Q: All of the following would be likely to cause the HR person to remove an applicant from the pool during the initial screening of the selection process EXCEPT a) Lack of experience. b) Performance test data. c) Many brief jobs. d) Gaps in the applicant's job history. e) Seminars and courses, instead of appropriate education.

Q: Which of the following is a legally appropriate question to ask on the application form? a) What is your name? b) What is your height? c) How old are you? d) Does your faith keep you from working on Saturday? e) What is your national origin?