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Q:
What types of unsafe conditions are the primary focus of OSHA standards? How does OSHA enforce its standards?
Q:
What are the three basic causes of workplace accidents? What is the role of OSHA in regard to workplace accidents?
Q:
Despite many managerial warnings, William refuses to wear a hard hat when working as an electrician for Paulsen Homes. William cuts his head when he falls from scaffolding that has not been properly secured. Paulsen Homes will most likely not be held liable for William's injury.
Q:
OSHA enforces its standards through inspections, which are usually announced so that employers have time to prepare.
Q:
An occupational illness is any abnormal condition or disorder caused by exposure to environmental factors associated with employment.
Q:
The Occupational Safety and Health Act does not cover self-employed persons or family farms.
Q:
All of the following would most likely contribute to a firm's OSHA liability EXCEPT ________.
A) voluntary consultations
B) irregular safety meetings
C) sporadic workplace inspections
D) lack of a systematic safety approach
Q:
Which of the following is a true statement about OSHA's voluntary consultation program?
A) Firms are charged a one-time fee for consultations.
B) Safety inspections are handled by federal employees.
C) Inspections that uncover citations trigger small penalties.
D) The consultation program is separate from OSHA inspections.
Q:
What is the primary role of supervisors in improving employee safety?
A) writing organizational safety policies
B) developing online safety manuals
C) conducting regular safety inspections
D) attending safety training workshops
Q:
According to the text, why is DuPont's accident rate significantly lower than the industry average?
A) employee safety incentive plans
B) organizational commitment to safety
C) selection procedures focused on safety
D) superior safety technology and training
Q:
According to the Occupational Safety and Health Act, employers are responsible for ________.
A) examining workplace conditions for OSHA compliance
B) scheduling annual consultations with OSHA representatives
C) paying monthly dues to OSHA and the Department of Labor
D) replacing old equipment on an annual basis to comply with OSHA
Q:
As a supervisor, which of the following is the LEAST recommended action to take during an OSHA inspection?
A) establishing the focus and scope of the planned inspection
B) accompanying the inspector and taking detailed notes
C) referring the inspector to your OSHA coordinator
D) volunteering all hazard and safety information
Q:
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be considered when OSHA calculates a penalty?
A) size of business
B) compliance history
C) gravity of violation
D) legal representation
Q:
Which of the following terms refers to a summons that informs employers and employees about regulations that have been violated at the workplace?
A) warrant
B) penalty
C) citation
D) inspection
Q:
Which of the following would be considered OSHA's lowest priority for inspection?
A) investigating an employee complaint
B) inspecting a site at which a catastrophe occurred
C) conducting a follow-up inspection
D) performing a high-hazard industry inspection
Q:
Which of the following would be considered OSHA's highest priority for inspection?
A) investigating the occurrence of a fatality
B) inspecting a site where there may be imminent danger
C) conducting random inspections and follow-up inspections
D) investigating employee complaints of alleged violations
Q:
Which of the following would most likely NOT be considered a reportable injury according to OSHA?
A) Tom injures his back during a traffic accident as he delivers lumber in a company truck.
B) Molly breaks her arm while playing in a softball game during a mandatory company picnic.
C) Leah breaks her wrist after slipping in a puddle on a stairwell inside the company building.
D) John sprains his ankle after becoming tangled in his car's seat belt in the company parking lot.
Q:
According to OSHA, employers must report occupational injuries that result in any of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) first aid treatment
B) restriction of motion
C) loss of consciousness
D) transfer to another job
Q:
What term is used to describe any abnormal condition or disorder caused by exposure to environmental factors associated with employment?
A) occupational injury
B) work-related disease
C) chronic illness
D) occupational illness
Q:
Under OSHA, employers with ________ or more employees must maintain records of and report occupational injuries and occupational illnesses.
A) 5
B) 11
C) 25
D) 100
Q:
Which government agency enforces the standards set out in the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
A) Department of Health and Human Services
B) Department of Commerce
C) Department of Agriculture
D) Department of Labor
Q:
All of the following are covered by the Occupational Safety and Health Act EXCEPT ________.
A) federal agents
B) hospital nurses
C) public school teachers
D) self-employed persons
Q:
The Occupational Safety and Health Act was intended to ________.
A) set national, state, and local safety and health standards
B) assure every person safe and healthful working conditions
C) provide safe and healthful working conditions to self-employed persons
D) prevent the occurrence of occupational illnesses among public employees
Q:
The basic purpose of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration is to ________.
A) set and enforce the safety and health standards that apply to almost all workers in the United States
B) ensure that employees of state agencies have safe and healthy working conditions
C) provide safe and healthy working conditions to all self-employed persons
D) prevent the occurrence of occupational illnesses among all employees
Q:
Each year there are roughly ________ million occupational injuries and illnesses in the United States.
A) 1.2
B) 3.8
C) 5.4
D) 9.8
Q:
The ________ form of union security means that the company can hire non-union people, but those people must join the union within a prescribed period of time.
A) closed shop
B) union shop
C) agency shop
D) open shop
Q:
Which type of union security accounts for almost three-fourths of union contracts?
A) preferential shop
B) agency shop
C) closed shop
D) union shop
Q:
In 1947, which type of union security was outlawed in interstate commerce?
A) closed shop
B) agency shop
C) union shop
D) preferential shop
Q:
The ________ form of union security means that the company can hire only union members.
A) closed shop
B) union shop
C) agency shop
D) maintenance of membership agreement
Q:
Which of the following best describes the closed shop form of union security?
A) A company hires non-union people if they agree to join the union.
B) Union members receive preferential treatment in hiring.
C) Employees who do not belong to the union are required to pay dues.
D) A company can hire only current union members.
Q:
What are the theories regarding why workers unionize? What are some of the activities that employers and supervisors can and cannot do during unionizing efforts?
Q:
Discuss the differences between unions before and after the Great Depression. What laws significantly affected U.S. unions?
Q:
What is the meaning of union security and what are the five types of union security possible? Explain each type.
Q:
Right-to-work legislation outlaws unions and union membership in specific states.
Q:
"Right to work" is a term used to describe state statutory or constitutional provisions banning the requirement of union membership as a condition of employment.
Q:
Which of the following is NOT one of the three layers of most union structures?
A) local union
B) national union
C) global federation
D) national federation
Q:
According to an Australian research study, employees join unions in response to ________.
A) concerns about worker safety
B) desires for mandatory arbitration
C) perceptions of employer unfairness
D) demands for new technical certification
Q:
Which of the following is most likely a false statement about union membership?
A) Employees prefer nonunion workers, so they pay them higher wages than union workers.
B) In an attempt to organize workers aggressively, seven big unions formed one federation.
C) In some industries, unionization has been linked to improved employee performance.
D) Both blue-collar and white-collar industries have union members.
Q:
Costco most likely has a reputation as being the "anti-Walmart" because the firm ________.
A) provides regular annual training
B) offers generous employee benefits
C) pays above the minimum wage
D) allows closed shop union security
Q:
Which of the following best describes the AFL-CIO?
A) voluntary federation of national and international labor unions
B) local union for automobile workers in Detroit, Michigan
C) federation of firms that fight unionization in their plants
D) regional branch of the National Labor Relations Board
Q:
In which human resource activity does a typical labor agreement NOT give the union a role?
A) recruitment
B) selection
C) dismissal
D) appraisals
Q:
Right-to-work laws inhibit union formation by ________.
A) outlawing unions in right-to-work states
B) prohibiting any form of union security
C) making union membership a precondition for employment
D) leaving the question of union security up to each company
Q:
The term "________" describes statutory or constitutional provisions banning the requirement of union membership as a condition of employment.
A) termination at will
B) right to work
C) open shop
D) free labor
Q:
With the maintenance of membership arrangement of union security, how long must union members employed by a firm maintain union membership?
A) until there is a wage increase
B) for the contract period
C) until negotiations end
D) for at least 1 year
Q:
In a brief essay, discuss why unions are declining in popularity.
Q:
What does the typical union authorization card do? How would the passage of the Employee Free Choice Act change authorization cards?
Q:
Less than 25% of all collective bargaining agreements contain cooperative clauses because they are risky for employers.
Q:
The Employee Free Choice Act would require binding arbitration to set a first contract's terms if the employer and union are unable to negotiate an agreement within 30 days.
Q:
The Employee Free Choice Act would make it more difficult for employers to prevent the formation of unions.
Q:
The activities between NUMMI and the UAW during a joint venture between GM and Toyota established the first ________ agreement.
A) organizational competitiveness
B) collective bargaining
C) closed shop
D) cooperative
Q:
According to the text, the Change to Win Coalition will target most aggressively all of the following groups EXCEPT ________.
A) contingent workers
B) minority workers
C) teachers
D) women
Q:
If passed, the Employee Free Choice Act would ________.
A) allow mass union e-mails at the workplace
B) allow the formation of global unions
C) institute a card check system
D) overturn the Wagner Act
Q:
All of the following most likely explain the decline in union membership EXCEPT ________.
A) increased global competition
B) improved wages and benefits
C) technological improvements
D) legislative protections for workers
Q:
Which of the following best explains why union membership has fallen since 1955?
A) Domestic companies are shifting from manufacturing to service-based operations.
B) Union members earn less on average compared to non-union members.
C) Union membership is too expensive for most blue-collar workers.
D) Foreign-owned manufacturers will not hire union members.
Q:
About ________% of people working in the United States belong to unions.
A) 5
B) 12
C) 20
D) 45
Q:
In the case of an impasse during the collective bargaining negotiations, what can be done to overcome the impasse? Define each form of intervention.
Q:
During union negotiations, trust is cultivated when the employer freely provides information and consistently shows good judgment in handling issues.
Q:
Grievances should be settled based on what is considered fair even if the solution differs from the labor agreement.
Q:
As an HR manager in the process of handling a grievance, you should treat the union representative as your equal and negotiate a solution privately without involving your higher level manager.
Q:
As an HR manager, you should avoid visiting the work area of a grievance or examining the grievants' personnel records.
Q:
The grievance procedure is a standardized process based on NLRB policies and fair labor practices.
Q:
Employers and unions can seek a court injunction to compel a party or parties to resume or desist from a certain action.
Q:
Lockouts are viewed by the NLRB as an unfair labor practice in all cases.
Q:
Employers can replace strikers permanently unless the strike is based on unfair labor practices.
Q:
Surface bargaining involves going through the motions of bargaining without any real intention of completing a formal agreement.
Q:
Jeff is a manager at a paper mill. He has received a grievance from a group of employees who are union members. The grievance claims that a plant rule barring employees from eating during unscheduled breaks is arbitrary and unfair. What should Jeff do?
A) examine the grievants' personnel records
B) agree to make informal changes to the rules
C) discuss the case privately with the union steward
D) make special arrangements with the grievants
Q:
Which term refers to the formal process for addressing any factor involving wages, hours, or conditions of employment that is used as a complaint against the employer?
A) negotiation
B) collective bargaining
C) arbitration method
D) grievance procedure
Q:
Which term refers to a refusal by the employer to provide opportunities to work during an impasse?
A) lockout
B) boycott
C) inside games
D) wildcat strike
Q:
Union tactics designed to impede or disrupt production by encouraging employees to slow the pace of work, refuse to work overtime, and participate in sick-outs are called ________.
A) espionage
B) inside games
C) lockouts
D) strikes
Q:
Under which scenario would an HR manager be required to rehire a striker who wanted to be reinstated?
A) following economic strikes if the negotiations are resolved
B) following sympathy strikes
C) following unfair labor practice strikes
D) following wildcat strikes when the contract is still in place
Q:
You are the HR manager at a firm that is currently dealing with an unfair labor practice strike. Which of the following responses would be LEAST appropriate for you to take?
A) shutting down the affected area until the strike ends
B) contracting out work to other operations
C) continuing operations with supervisors filling in
D) hiring permanent replacement workers
Q:
During the term of their contract with ABC Manufacturing, members of the firm's employee union participate in an unauthorized strike. This is most likely an example of a(n) ________ strike.
A) unfair labor practice
B) wildcat
C) sympathy
D) economic
Q:
The United Auto Workers went on strike support the employees of the Detroit News, Detroit Free Press, and USA Today. This is an example of a(n) ________ strike.
A) unfair labor practice
B) wildcat
C) sympathy
D) yellow-dog
Q:
Union members at ABC Manufacturing are striking because management and the union failed to reach an agreement on the health benefits aspect of a contract. This is most likely an example of a(n) ________ strike.
A) unfair labor practice
B) wildcat
C) sympathy
D) economic
Q:
Which form of arbitration means that both parties are committed to accepting the arbitrator's decision?
A) interest arbitration
B) binding arbitration
C) nonbinding arbitration
D) compulsory arbitration
Q:
Arbitration means ending an impasse by ________.
A) assisting the principals in reaching an agreement
B) studying the issue in a dispute and suggesting a settlement
C) making a public recommendation to a committee
D) giving a third-party the power to determine and dictate the settlement terms
Q:
The National Air Traffic Controllers Association and the Federal Aviation Administration have reached an impasse during collective bargaining. Which of the following will most likely be used to reach a settlement?
A) interest arbitration
B) mediation
C) binding arbitration
D) fact finding
Q:
Which third-party intervention is commonly used in national emergency disputes?
A) fact finding
B) mediation
C) binding arbitration
D) nonbinding arbitration
Q:
Fact finding seeks to end an impasse by ________.
A) assisting the principals in reaching an agreement
B) studying the issues and making a public recommendation
C) interpreting and analyzing existing contract terms
D) communicating assessments of the likelihood of a strike
Q:
Which intervention method listed below is the most definitive of all third-party interventions?
A) fact finding
B) mediation
C) binding arbitration
D) interest arbitration