Q&A Hero

Q: (p. 407) Employees who properly understand how to do their jobs are more efficient than those who do not.

Q: (p. 406) Logically, cost reduction should begin in the areas where the greatest savings can be realized.

Q: (p. 405) Indirect labor costs include labor costs for services provided by employees such as housekeeping and quality control personnel.

Q: (p. 405) Maintenance costs include expenditures for physical space, staff services, research, and legal services.

Q: (p. 404) One general problem with cost reduction is that when it is considered everybody's problem, it ends up being nobody's problem.

Q: (p. 403) Given that employees expend resources, the supervisor has no control over cost-reduction programs.

Q: (p. 402) Kaizen, in today's context, describes a process of continuous and relentless improvement.

Q: (p. 401) A primary concern of ergonomics is that the equipment and the workplace be designed to make jobs as easy as possible.

Q: (p. 400) Time study is concerned with determining the most efficient way of doing a task.

Q: (p. 399) Motion study is the analysis of a task to determine the elements of work required to perform the task, the order in which these elements occur, and the time required to perform them effectively.

Q: (p. 398) Methods engineering is used to find the most efficient way to accomplish a given task.

Q: (p. 397) Productivity is defined as units of input per employee hour.

Q: (p. 387) List two guidelines for building quality job habits among employees.

Q: (p. 385) What did the revised ISO 9000 standards emphasize?

Q: (p. 384) Define reengineering.

Q: (p. 381) Define quality assurance.

Q: (p. 380) What does an inventory control deal with?

Q: (p. 378) Define zero-base budgeting.

Q: (p. 376) What is the overriding purpose of monitoring performance?

Q: (p. 375) List two methods that are used to set performance standards.

Q: (p. 375) What are the three steps in the control process?

Q: (p. 375) Define control and explain the major difference between planning and control.

Q: (p. 388) The purpose of the ________________ was to inspire increased efforts by U.S. businesses to improve the quality of their products and services. A. Wagner-Sherman National Quality Advancement Act B. Taft-Hartley Quality Development Disclosure Act C. Landrum-Griffin Quality Management Reporting Act D. Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Improvement Act

Q: (p. 387) Identify the incorrect statement about quality circles. A. Usually, a quality circle begins by receiving specialized training relating to quality. B. The primary emphasis of quality circles is to get the employees actively involved. C. Membership in a quality circle is almost always obligatory. D. The basic purpose is to meet periodically to solve quality problems and identify ways of improving quality.

Q: (p. 387) A zero-defects program: A. assures of having no defective products. B. allows each employee a predetermined number of defective products. C. makes everyone aware of his or her potential impact on quality. D. tries to cut defects or defective services to zero.

Q: (p. 386) The goal of ________________ is to provide international environmental standards that are compatible. A. ISO 14000 B. ISO 1987 C. ISO 9000 D. a zero-defects program

Q: (p. 385) ISO certification guarantees that a company had: A. excellent quality of the actual end product or service. B. fully documented its quality control procedures. C. thoroughly trained its inspectors. D. at least one ISO trained employee per department per shift.

Q: (p. 385) The International Organization for Standardization created a set of quality standards in 1987 that are commonly referred to as: A. Baldrige standards. B. ISO 1987. C. TQM. D. ISO 9000.

Q: (p. 383) Quality at the source emphasizes on making each employee responsible for his or her quality of work. Which of the following is not an advantage of this method? A. Holding each employee under the spotlight as a quality inspector for his or her own work B. Allowing the elimination of waste and activities that can be liabilities to the company C. Removing the negative feelings shared in the relationship between the quality control inspectors and production employees D. Encouraging and instilling pride in the employees' work

Q: (p. 382) Total quality management requires the involvement of: A. supervisors only. B. top and middle management only. C. everyone inside the organization. D. workers only.

Q: (p. 381) Product quality control: A. uses acceptance sampling procedures. B. relates to the control of machines or processes. C. is concerned with maintaining adequate inventory supplies. D. is used to prevent the production of defects.

Q: (p. 379) Identify the correct statement about management by walking around. A. It is basically a hands-on approach to control. B. It is an effective means for setting objectives. C. It is a type of control based on oral reports. D. It is a structural method used by managers.

Q: (p. 378) ________________ is sometimes the only way a supervisor can really determine what is actually happening. A. Budgeting B. Personal observation C. A written report D. Management by objectives

Q: (p. 378) Analytical reports ________________ the presented facts, while informational reports only ________________ the facts. A. communicate; determine B. provide; analyze C. conclude; explain D. interpret; present

Q: (p. 378) Perhaps the greatest danger in administering a budget is: A. control. B. overspending. C. inefficiency. D. inflexibility.

Q: (p. 377 Fig 18.2) Company X decides to upgrade its machinery because of market requirement. The budgeting for the plant, equipment, inventories, etc., will be handled by the team dealing with the: A. balance sheet budget. B. capital expenditure budget. C. revenue and expense budget. D. cash budget.

Q: (p. 377) Concurrent controls: A. focus on things that happen as inputs are being transformed into outputs. B. attempt to prevent a problem from occurring. C. are designed to detect existing problems after they occur but before they reach crisis proportions. D. include written or periodic reports.

Q: (p. 376) Most control tools and techniques are primarily concerned with: A. scheduling. B. inventory. C. monitoring performance. D. punitive actions.

Q: (p. 376) Monitoring should be viewed as ________________ and not _______________. A. punitive; preventative B. preventive; punitive C. techniques; methods D. methods; techniques

Q: (p. 376 Fig 18.1) Return on investment and percent of capacity are examples of ________________ standards. A. revenue B. productivity C. resource usage D. cost

Q: (p. 376 Fig 18.1) Which of the following categories of standards is designed to reflect output per unit of time? A. Material standards B. Productivity standards C. Resource usage standards D. Cost standards

Q: (p. 375) The three basic requirements of the control process include all of the following except: A. establishing performance standards. B. taking necessary corrective actions. C. planning levels of productivity. D. monitoring performance and comparing it with standards.

Q: (p. 389) The Baldrige criteria for performance excellence are designed to help organizations deliver ever improving value to customers.

Q: (p. 388) If the supervisor strives for high quality in everything that he or she does, so will the employees.

Q: (p. 387) If needed, a quality circle can call in staff experts to help them solve their quality problems.

Q: (p. 387) Extensive communication is one characteristic that is common to most successful zero-defects programs.

Q: (p. 386) If effective, zero-defects programs will eventually reduce the number of defective products to zero.

Q: (p. 385) The revised ISO 9000 standards emphasized engineering, rather than international organization and in-house performance, as the best way to deliver a product or service.

Q: (p. 384) Lean manufacturing and six sigma are approaches that are mutually exclusive to each other.

Q: (p. 382) TQM is an organization wide emphasis on quality as defined by the customer.

Q: (p. 381) The emphasis is moving away from preventing quality problems and more toward inspecting the finished goods for quality.

Q: (p. 381) Product control is used to prevent the production of defective products.

Q: (p. 381) Accountability for quality is the supervisor's responsibility.

Q: (p. 379) Management by objectives and management by walking around are essentially the same.

Q: (p. 378) Personal observation is sometimes the only way for a supervisor to get an accurate picture of what is really happening.

Q: (p. 378) Written reports are frequently used as supervisory control tools.

Q: (p. 377) Balance sheet budgets forecast the status of assets, liabilities, and net worth at the end of the budget period.

Q: (p. 377) The revenue and expense budget forecasts cash receipts and disbursements.

Q: (p. 376) If standards are not being met satisfactorily, the supervisor must do the job himself.

Q: (p. 376) Monitoring is a good means of checking up on employees.

Q: (p. 375) Output standards take into account a lot more than just work, including all the laterals that may or may not be directly related to the job.

Q: (p. 375) When objectives have been set as part of the planning process, they are used as standards.

Q: (p. 364) Describe any three actions that would be classified as unfair labor practices that the supervisor must avoid.

Q: (p. 362) Give three reasons why an employee may choose not to join a union.

Q: (p. 362) What are the important reasons for people joining unions?

Q: (p. 360) Describe right-to-work laws.

Q: (p. 359) Describe the Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890.

Q: (p. 355-356) What is arbitration?

Q: (p. 355) Who is a union steward?

Q: (p. 354) List any two offences that would justify immediate termination of an employee.

Q: (p. 352-353) List any two actions that should be taken by the supervisor in the prediscipline stage.

Q: (p. 351) What are the four steps used in a formal, progressive grievance procedure?

Q: (p. 365) If the union has been successful in becoming the employees' representative, then the supervisor: A. must try and take the management onto his or her side so that his decision making is not affected. B. must accept the situation and learn to lead within the restraints of the union. C. could accept the situation and allow the union to make all decisions. D. could sue the union and demand its dilution to discourage union participation in management.

Q: (p. 365) During a union organization drive, supervisors should: A. not bribe an employee directly or indirectly with regard to joining the union. B. try to argue with employees to encourage them not to unionize. C. increase wages so that the employees will consider remaining nonunion. D. threaten any employee who seems likely to join the union.

Q: (p. 364) According to the Labor-Management Relations Act passed in 1947, the supervisor must: A. avoid discriminating against union members. B. avoid the practice of telling employees to join unions. C. enforce previously unenforced rules by disciplining an employee as an example. D. discipline the employee and then look for evidence to support the decision.

Q: (p. 363 Fig 17.9) Which of the following is NOT typically a part of the union organization drive? A. A group of employees determine that a union is desirable. B. A representative of the union visits the company in order to solicit members. C. At least 30 percent of the employees must sign authorization cards calling for an election. D. 30 percent of the employees in the organization must vote in favor of unionization.

Q: (p. 362) One of the reasons an employee may NOT choose to join a union is: A. the worker distrusts management. B. the worker's wish to belong to an organization of people with similar needs and desires. C. the worker may want the opportunity to formally complain. D. the worker may want to progress into management.

Q: (p. 362) Officers hired by the local union are responsible which of the following of its activities? A. Handling contract negotiations B. Dealing with strikes C. Sorting out important grievances D. Conducting union business apart from their regular jobs

Q: (p. 361) Which of the following acts, issued in 1968, gave the U.S. secretary of labor the authority to supervise union elections and investigate unfair labor practices in the public sector? A. Executive Order 11491 B. Executive Order 10988 C. The Norris-La Guardia Act D. The Labor-Management Relations Act

Q: (p. 361) Which of the following acts was passed in 1959 and is primarily concerned with the protection of the rights of individual union members? A. The Sherman Antitrust Act B. The Clayton Act C. The Landrum-Griffin Act D. The Employee Fair Choice Act