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Q:
(p. 157) To manage time effectively, a supervisor must first have a thorough understanding of exactly what he or she is expected to do.
Q:
(p. 156) Scheduled and non-scheduled meetings are considered time wasters.
Q:
(p. 147) What is a balanced scorecard?
Q:
(p. 147 Fig 7.11) What are the basic elements of an MBO system?
Q:
(p. 143) What is the purpose of scheduling?
Q:
(p. 142-143) List five common supervisory planning activities.
Q:
(p. 142) What are the major advantages of procedures?
Q:
(p. 140-141) Explain what contingency plans are.
Q:
(p. 139 Fig 7.5) List three typical areas of supervisory objectives.
Q:
(p. 138) Elaborate the concept of SMART criteria stated for objectives.
Q:
(p. 136 Fig 7.2) List six questions that are answered when a supervisor goes through the planning process.
Q:
(p. 133) What time span do most supervisory plans cover?
Q:
(p. 147) Under the ________________ system, a cause-and-effect relationship between day-to-day business operations and strategic objectives is established to determine if an organization is on track or not.
A. applied information economics
B. cost-benefit analysis
C. balanced scorecard
D. key performance indicators
Q:
(p. 147) For an MBO system to succeed, all of the following requirements must be met except:
A. objectives must be jointly set by the supervisor and the employee.
B. subordinates must be regularly evaluated.
C. subordinates must be rewarded based on objective attainment.
D. all pay raises must be done equally across-the-board.
Q:
(p. 144) Most of the tools used today to visualize and simplify scheduling are based on:
A. MBOs.
B. Gantt charts.
C. Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
D. corporate objectives.
Q:
(p. 143) Routing involves:
A. determining the best sequence of operations.
B. efficient allocation of organizational resources.
C. developing precise timetables.
D. developing a statement of expected numerical results.
Q:
(p. 143) Resource allocation:
A. involves determining not how long a job will take but when the work will be performed.
B. involves determining the best sequence of operations and how it can be executed within a specified time limit.
C. involves ensuring that the work is synchronized and completed within certain time limits.
D. involves appropriation of people, materials, and equipment so as to successfully meet the objectives that have been established.
Q:
(p. 142) ________________ require that specific and definite actions be taken or not taken with regard to given situations.
A. Goals
B. Policies
C. Rules
D. Procedures
Q:
(p. 142) A ________________ is a series of related steps or tasks performed in sequential order to achieve a specific purpose.
A. rule
B. policy
C. procedure
D. goal
Q:
(p. 141) ________________ are broad, general guidelines to action and their major purpose is to ensure consistency in the decisions and actions taken throughout the organization.
A. Rules
B. Policies
C. Procedures
D. Goals
Q:
(p. 140-141) ________________ plans address the "what-ifs" of the supervisor's job.
A. Contingency
B. Supervisory
C. Action
D. Corporate
Q:
(p. 139 Fig 7.4) Which of the following is an example of a "how to improve work" objective?
A. Minimizing production
B. Reducing absenteeism
C. Maximizing waste
D. Minimizing product quality
Q:
(p. 139) At the supervisory level, objectives basically deal with all of the following EXCEPT:
A. production quotas.
B. quality.
C. costs.
D. total organizational sales.
Q:
(p. 139) Action planning answers all the following questions EXCEPT:
A. when should it be done.
B. why must it be done.
C. what to do if something goes wrong.
D. how should it be done.
Q:
(p. 138) When assigning priorities to objectives, you must determine:
A. which is most important and which is least important.
B. how the objective will be achieved.
C. who originally created the objective.
D. their relative importance.
Q:
(p. 138) Which of the following is NOT appropriate for an objective?
A. It should be specific
B. It should be assigned a priority
C. It should be unattainable for employee motivation
D. It should be measurable and understandable
Q:
(p. 137) Objectives should be:
A. ambiguous.
B. detailed.
C. quantifiable.
D. undetermined.
Q:
(p. 136) Which of the following statements about planning is true?
A. Planning is concerned with the future changes that will occur in an organization.
B. Successful planning for the entire organization involves gathering only corporate level information.
C. Objectives must be established before the planning process can be completed.
D. Planning requires that specific and definite actions be taken or not taken with respect to given situations.
Q:
(p. 135) Planning is generally concerned with:
A. future decisions.
B. future and past decisions.
C. the future impact of today's decisions.
D. analyzing past decisions that were wrong.
Q:
(p. 134) The part of strategic management that focuses on identifying areas needing improvement is:
A. action planning.
B. gap analysis.
C. objective setting.
D. goal setting.
Q:
(p. 134) Strategic management:
A. is the process of formulating short-term plans.
B. is based on level-specific planning.
C. ensures coordination of plans made at different organizational levels.
D. is based on plans developed by individual supervisors.
Q:
(p. 133) Which of the following is NOT a factor that typically affects the planning needs of an organization?
A. Identifiable process
B. The environment
C. Its size
D. The type of business
Q:
(p. 147) Balanced scorecard is a relative new performance measurement system that is based on the statistical process control concept.
Q:
(p. 147) MBO requires that employees be rewarded on the basis of subjective evaluations of their accomplishments against goals.
Q:
(p. 147) When using MBOs, supervisors should formally provide feedback to each employee only once a year.
Q:
(p. 147) For an MBO system to be successful, individual objectives must solely be set by the supervisor.
Q:
(p. 144) Gantt charts can be used to give a scheduler a visual picture showing when to schedule specific activities.
Q:
(p. 144) Anticipating lost time is a requirement of scheduling.
Q:
(p. 143) Routing involves determining the best sequence of operations.
Q:
(p. 143) Cost-reduction programs are improvement programs that involve supervisors.
Q:
(p. 142) Rules leave room for interpretation of what is to be done or not done, whereas policies do not.
Q:
(p. 142) Policies define the limits within which supervisors must operate.
Q:
(p. 141) Policies usually dictate exactly how something should be done.
Q:
(p. 141) Strategic planning gets the supervisor in the habit of being prepared and knowing what to do if something does not go as expected.
Q:
(p. 138) Objectives should always be set slightly higher than what can be attained.
Q:
(p. 137) At the supervisory level, objectives typically deal with quality, quantity, cost, personnel, and safety.
Q:
(p. 136) Objectives must be established before deciding what must be done to achieve them.
Q:
(p. 135) Planning is basically concerned with future decisions.
Q:
(p. 134) A benefit of supervisor's involvement in the strategic management is that it fosters a long-range orientation.
Q:
(p. 134) One of the benefits of strategic management is more exposure of managers at all levels to the "big picture."
Q:
(p. 134) Successful strategic management involves many different levels in the organization, including supervisors.
Q:
(p. 133) Once specific plans for the different parts of an organization are developed, the strategic plans can be derived from them.
Q:
(p. 123) List some guidelines that supervisors should follow when socializing with other members of the organization.
Q:
(p. 119) Define organization politics.
Q:
(p. 119) What are some positive things supervisors can do to increase their power base in a positive manner?
Q:
(p. 117) Define social responsibility.
Q:
(p. 115) Briefly outline the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX).
Q:
(p. 114) Give an example each for internal and external overt personal actions.
Q:
(p. 113) List some of the ways dishonest employees steal from their employers.
Q:
(p. 111) Why is it important that companies discipline employees who violate their codes of ethics?
Q:
(p. 108) Define ethics.
Q:
(p. 123) Which of the following is NOT a guideline for dealing with other members of the organization?
A. Be yourself even around your boss.
B. Use common sense.
C. It is acceptable to date subordinates as long as it does not interfere with work assignments.
D. Avoid work-related promises when socializing.
Q:
(p. 121) Which of the following is the best way for a supervisor to get feedback from his or her boss?
A. Insist on a monthly written report from your boss.
B. Take advantage of opportunities for informal discussions with your boss.
C. Depend solely on formal performance appraisals.
D. Willingly accept positive feedback but ignore negative feedback.
Q:
(p. 119) All of the following are ethical behaviors pertaining to organization politics EXCEPT:
A. trying to influence the boss.
B. attempting to gain a competitive edge over peers.
C. trying to gain power.
D. pursuing self-interest to the detriment of others.
Q:
(p. 119) Being "in good" with your boss is:
A. unethical.
B. a bad idea.
C. a source of power.
D. very likely to backfire.
Q:
(p. 119) Which of the following not only reflects positively on a supervisor's performance but also promotes loyalty to the supervisor?
A. Gain the respect of top management.
B. Help employees be successful.
C. Be "in good" with your boss.
D. Get people obligated to you.
Q:
(p. 119) Power includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. getting others to do what you ask.
B. getting others to respond well to orders.
C. the ability to get others to respond favorably to instructions.
D. the right to expend resources.
Q:
(p. 117) Simply stated, ________________ means "the way we do things around here" and communicates how people in an organization should behave.
A. corporate governance
B. corporate transparency
C. corporate social responsibility
D. corporate culture
Q:
(p. 117) When dealing with dishonest peers and managers, one should:
A. report suspicions to the human resources department.
B. simply confront the person.
C. report suspicions to his or her boss and let him or her confront the person.
D. confront and discipline the person.
Q:
(p. 116) One problem with ________________ is that the person is at risk should management react negatively or defensively to the information provided.
A. tattle-telling
B. employee dishonesty
C. social loafing
D. whistle-blowing
Q:
(p. 115) Under _______________, employees can file complaints with the Occupational Safety and Health Administration if they have been retaliated against by their employer for reporting suspected corporate fraud or other activities related to fraud against shareholders.
A. HIPAA
B. SOX
C. GLBA
D. FISMA
Q:
(p. 115) Creditors are required to let consumers know how much they are paying in finance charges and interest according to:
A. SOX.
B. OSHA.
C. the Equal Credit Opportunity Act of 1975.
D. the Truth in Lending Act of 1968.
Q:
(p. 114) A supervisor having a tendency to "talk behind peoples' backs" would fall into which category of ethical conduct?
A. Covert personal actions
B. Human relations
C. Loyalty
D. Power base
Q:
(p. 114) All of the following are areas of supervision requiring ethical conduct EXCEPT:
A. human relations.
B. power base.
C. loyalty.
D. overt personal actions.
Q:
(p. 114 Fig 6.4) Which of the following would be the best display of ethical behavior? A supervisor who:
A. ruthlessly pursues his or her career for his or her personal benefit.
B. occasionally uses a company vehicle to take his or her family on vacation.
C. does not cut corners to save time.
D. makes personal long-distance calls from the company phone.
Q:
(p. 111) Identify the incorrect statement about the role that supervisors play in setting the example of ethical conduct.
A. Establishing a code of ethics fully prevents unethical behavior.
B. Where it exists, a code of ethics provides the framework within which supervisors must act.
C. In situations not specifically covered by a code of ethics, supervisors need to use individual judgment.
D. Employees are much more impressed by what supervisors do than by what they say.
Q:
(p. 111) The way employees interpret ethics is most influenced by:
A. what supervisors say.
B. what is acceptable.
C. what supervisors do.
D. what is unacceptable in their religion.
Q:
(p. 111) The code of ethics in an organization can be communicated through:
A. word of mouth.
B. informal occasions.
C. corporate gatherings.
D. company mailings.
Q:
(p. 110) Which of these would probably NOT be included in an organization's written code of ethics?
A. Ethical standards expected of employees
B. Acceptance of gifts for doing organizational jobs
C. The amount of overtime an employee is allowed to work.
D. Employee involvement in political campaigns
Q:
(p. 109) A ________________ is a written statement of principles that should be followed in the conduct of business.
A. resolution
B. power base statement
C. code of ethics
D. mission statement