Accounting
Anthropology
Archaeology
Art History
Banking
Biology & Life Science
Business
Business Communication
Business Development
Business Ethics
Business Law
Chemistry
Communication
Computer Science
Counseling
Criminal Law
Curriculum & Instruction
Design
Earth Science
Economic
Education
Engineering
Finance
History & Theory
Humanities
Human Resource
International Business
Investments & Securities
Journalism
Law
Management
Marketing
Medicine
Medicine & Health Science
Nursing
Philosophy
Physic
Psychology
Real Estate
Science
Social Science
Sociology
Special Education
Speech
Visual Arts
Human Resource
Q:
Behavior or skill-based outcomes are best measured by _____.
a. surveys
b. interviews
c. focus groups
d. observations
Q:
Which of the following is true of return on investment (ROI)?
a. It is referred to as level 3 evaluation in Kirkpatricks framework for categorizing training outcomes.
b. It refers to comparing sales activity before and after a training program.
c. Dollar value of productivity divided by training costs reflects return on investment.
d. The method of measurement for return on investment typically involves tests, surveys, and interviews.
Q:
If a firm measures its sales volume before and after a training program, it is typically assessing the _____ outcome.
a. reaction
b. behavior-based
c. learning
d. results
Q:
Which of the following is an affective outcome collected in a training evaluation?
a. Learners satisfaction with training
b. Customer service orientation
c. Increased production
d. Reduced costs of production
Q:
Typically, _____ are used to assess cognitive outcomes.
a. attitude surveys
b. observations
c. focus groups
d. pencil-and-paper tests
Q:
Which of the following types of training outcomes are collected when trainees are asked to rate their level of satisfaction with the trainer at the end of a training program?
a. Result
b. Cognitive
c. Reaction
d. Behavior-based
Q:
According to Kirkpatricks framework for categorizing training outcomes, _____ outcomes are level 1 criteria that are often called class or instructor evaluations.
a. learning
b. reaction
c. skill-based
d. affective
Q:
The _____ training outcome is collected to determine whether trainees are using training content back on the job.
a. reaction
b. learning
c. cognitive
d. result
Q:
The evaluation process ideally begins with:
a. developing outcome measures.
b. choosing an evaluation strategy.
c. developing measurable learning objectives.
d. conducting a needs analysis.
Q:
Formative evaluation involves collecting qualitative data about a training program from trainees mainly through:
a. their opinions and feelings about the program.
b. measures of performance such as volume of sales.
c. tests and ratings of their behavior.
d. the return on investment method.
Q:
Which of the following statements best differentiates formative evaluation from summative evaluation?
a. Formative evaluation mainly involves collecting quantitative data, whereas summative evaluation involves collecting qualitative data.
b. Formative evaluation takes place on the completion of training, whereas summative evaluation takes place during program design and development.
c. Formative evaluation focuses on how to make a training program better, whereas summative evaluation helps to determine the extent to which trainees have changed after training.
d. Formative evaluation includes measuring the monetary benefits that a company receives from a training program, whereas summative evaluation measures beliefs and opinions of the trainees.
Q:
_____ refers to the process of collecting the outcomes needed to determine whether training is effective.
a. Training evaluation
b. Program design
c. Performance appraisal
d. Needs assessment
Q:
Explain how the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) can be used as a tool for instructors to understand learner needs and styles.
Q:
What is program design? What are the three phases of the program design process?
Q:
Companies experience loss of explicit and tacit knowledge when older employees retire.
a. True
b. False
Q:
According to the opportunity to perform, breadth refers to the number of times or the frequency with which trained tasks are performed on the job.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Opportunity to perform is influenced by both the work environment and trainee motivation.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The basic level of training support that a manager can provide is acceptance.
a. True
b. False
Q:
To encourage self-management, it is important to emphasize that lapses are evidence of personal inadequacy.
a. True
b. False
Q:
When a series of steps must be followed in a specific way to complete a task successfully, then training should be designed with an emphasis on far transfer.
a. True
b. False
Q:
When using an outside vendor to provide training services, it is important to consider the extent to which the training program will be customized based on a companys needs.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The traditional classroom-type arrangement is good for role-play exercises that involve trainees working in groups of two or three.
a. True
b. False
Q:
In developing a lesson outline, trainers need to consider the proper sequencing of topics.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Lesson plans are typically more detailed than design documents.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A curriculum covers more specific learning objectives and addresses a more limited number of competencies than a course or program.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The only way to deal with disruptive trainees is to ask them to leave the training session.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The smaller the room, the more a trainers gestures and movements must be exaggerated to get the audiences attention.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Negative expectations held by instructors can lead to learners negative evaluation of the training and the trainer.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Giving trainees frequent breaks so that they can leave the room and return ready to start learning again is a good practice in training.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The dimensions of Myers-Briggs Type Indicator combine to form eighteen personality types.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Compared to the other groups, baby boomers are especially motivated to learn if they believe that training content will benefit them personally.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Using managers and employees as trainers decreases the perceived meaningfulness of the training content.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Traditional classroom-type seating makes it difficult for trainees to work in teams.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Fan-type seating is ineffective for training that includes trainees working in groups and teams to analyze problems and synthesize information.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The _____ job is to develop, implement, and link a knowledge culture with the companys technology infrastructure, including databases and intranets.
a. chief technical officers (CTO)
b. chief learning officers (CLO)
c. chief ethics officers (CEO)
d. chief culture officers (CCO)
Q:
Effective knowledge sharing is facilitated when employees:
a. use multiple search engines and collaboration tools all on different computer systems.
b. see knowledge sharing as an additional responsibility.
c. view knowledge as a means to have power over others.
d. have easy access to information within the context of their jobs.
Q:
Which of the following is a major cause for loss of explicit and tacit knowledge?
a. Creating chief information officer (CIO) and chief learning officer (CLO) positions
b. Requiring employees to give presentations to other employees
c. Older employees retiring
d. Use of social networking sites in companies
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of knowledge management?
a. Use of social networking sites such as Facebook or MySpace in organizations hinders knowledge management.
b. It involves acquiring knowledge, studying problems, attending training, and using technology only within work.
c. It does not require positions like chief information officer (CIO) and chief learning officer (CLO) as knowledge transfer is spontaneous.
d. Creating communities of practice and using after-action reviews at the end of each project facilitates knowledge management.
Q:
Which of the following is a major aid in communicating tacit knowledge?
a. Product formula
b. Manual
c. Discussion
d. Procedure document
Q:
Explicit knowledge:
a. mainly consists of personal knowledge based on individual experience.
b. can be communicated only through discussion and demonstrations.
c. can be managed by a knowledge management system.
d. is highly influenced by perceptions and values.
Q:
If trainers in a firm want access to valuable information about the transfer of training problems that trainees encounter, they should typically use the _____.
a. supply chain management system
b. electronic performance support system
c. transaction processing system
d. business process reengineering system
Q:
Low levels of opportunity to perform indicate that:
a. training content is not important for the employees job.
b. refresher courses for trainees are not necessary.
c. there is no decay in learned capabilities of employees.
d. the work environment is not interfering with the use of new skills.
Q:
In opportunity to perform, activity level refers to the _____.
a. number of trained tasks performed on the job
b. frequency with which trained tasks are performed on the job
c. critical nature of the trained tasks that are actually performed on the job
d. number of employees performing a similar trained task
Q:
Which of the following terms refer to a group of two or more trainees who agree to meet and discuss their progress in using learned capabilities on the job?
a. Quality circle
b. Focus group
c. Support network
d. Strategic group
Q:
A(n) _____ is a written document that includes the steps that a trainee and manager will take to ensure that training transfers to the job.
a. concept map
b. design document
c. lesson plan
d. action plan
Q:
In training, the greatest level of support that a manager can provide is to:
a. participate in training as an instructor.
b. allow trainees to attend training.
c. provide trainees opportunity to practice what they have learnt.
d. discuss progress of the training sessions with trainees.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of near transfer?
a. If the tasks emphasized in training involve more variable interactions with people or equipment and unpredictable responses, then instruction should emphasize near transfer.
b. Programs that emphasize near transfer should ideally include general principles that might apply to a greater set of contexts than those presented in the training session.
c. Teaching learners to create a new product or solve a difficult problem requires training with an emphasis on near transfer.
d. In near transfer, trainees should be encouraged to focus only on important differences between training tasks and work tasks rather than unimportant differences.
Q:
Which of the following instances call for training with an emphasis on far transfer?
a. Securing offices and buildings
b. Handling routine client questions
c. Creating a new product
d. Logging into computers and using software
Q:
A request for proposal (RFP) is a document mainly used to identify:
a. potential vendors and consultants for training services.
b. employees who do not require training.
c. trainee prerequisites for a training course.
d. disruptive trainees in an organization.
Q:
A lesson plan overview matches major activities of a training program and _____.
a. instructor prerequisites
b. trainee prerequisites
c. specific times or time intervals
d. funding required for the training
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of lesson plans?
a. They are typically less detailed than the design document.
b. They ensure that both the trainee and the trainer are aware of the course and program objectives.
c. They include several courses and mainly focus on developing a set of competencies needed to perform a job.
d. They are not documented; therefore, they cannot be shared with managers who pay for training services.
Q:
_____ review sessions are meetings between a manager and employee, during which the strengths and weaknesses of the employees performance are discussed and improvement goals agreed upon.
a. Performance testing
b. Performance appraisal
c. Performance engineering
d. Performance budget
Q:
Curricula differ from courses in that curricula:
a. consist of narrower learning objectives.
b. include less measurable learning objectives.
c. address a more limited number of competencies.
d. take less time to complete.
Q:
A(n) _____ gets learners into the appropriate mental state for learning and allows them to understand the personal and work-related meaningfulness and relevance of course content.
a. concept map
b. request for proposal
c. application blank
d. application assignment
Q:
According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI), which of the following types of learners require instructors to emphasize on personal needs, beliefs, values, and experiences?
a. Proactive learners
b. Feeling learners
c. Thinking learners
d. Reactive learners
Q:
The dimensions of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator combine to form _____ personality types.
a. sixteen
b. fourteen
c. twelve
d. eighteen
Q:
_____ place a high value on money, so linking training to monetary incentives facilitates learning for them.
a. Traditionalists
b. Baby boomers
c. Millenniums
d. Gen Xers
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of traditionalists?
a. They like to be put on the spot in front of other trainees.
b. They dislike trainers asking them to share their experiences or anecdotes.
c. They prefer dynamic learning environments.
d. They value direct presentation of information that is organized logically.
Q:
If training emphasizes total-group discussion with limited presentation and no small-group interaction, a _____ seating arrangement will be most effective.
a. conference-type
b. horseshoe
c. fan-type
d. classroom-type
Q:
The program design process for training typically begins with:
a. encouraging learners to apply what they have learned to their work.
b. preparing a concept map and curriculum road map to facilitate learning.
c. preparing, motivating, and energizing trainees to attend the learning event.
d. preparing instruction (classes, courses, programs, lessons) to facilitate learning.
Q:
What is the role of chief learning officers (CLOs) in ensuring effective knowledge management?
Q:
How can opportunity to perform be measured and what do low levels of opportunity to perform indicate?
Q:
What is a curriculum road map and what does it include?
Q:
What does training administration involve?
Q:
What are communities of practice (COPs)? What are its drawbacks?
Q:
What is error management training?
Q:
List some useful techniques for convincing trainees that the training program content is meaningful.
Q:
What are the underlying assumptions of Knowless adult learning theory?
Q:
Closed skills include prescribed behaviors that are highly influenced by managers, peers, and the work environment.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Less specific feedback provide trainees with better opportunities to learn compared to highly specific feedback.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Automatization of tasks increases memory demands.
a. True
b. False
Q:
For more complex tasks, relatively long rest periods appear to be beneficial for task learning.
a. True
b. False
Q:
In error management training, trainees are instructed that errors hamper learning and hence they must be completely avoided.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Learning will occur if employees practice only by talking about what they are expected to do.
a. True
b. False
Q:
In learning, it is best to include a combination of examples and practice, rather than all practice.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The objective of training should not describe performance that cannot be observed, such as understand or know.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The working storage and semantic encoding processes of learning both relate to short-term memory.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The stimulus generalization approach emphasizes near transfer of training.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Identical elements theory does not encourage transfer where the learning environment and the training environment are not necessarily identical.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Open skills refer to training objectives that are linked to learning specific skills that are to be identically produced by the trainee on their job.
a. True
b. False