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Q:
Most educational theories have been developed exclusively to educate children and youths.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Expectancy is similar to self-efficacy.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Individuals with a learning orientation find that errors and mistakes cause anxiety and thus want to avoid them.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The adult learning theory assumes that adults enter a learning experience with a subject-centered approach instead of problem-centered approach to learning.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Instruction refers to the trainers manipulation of the environment in order to help trainees learn.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Developing a computer program that meets customer specifications is an example of an intellectual skills learning outcome.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Recognizing that employees have preferences regarding how they want to learn is a good practice in training.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Feedback from trainers and coaches deters training.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Which of the following is an example of the internal conditions necessary for learning outcomes?
a. Providing trainees opportunities to practice new skills
b. Strong message provided to trainees from credible source
c. Verbal description of strategy
d. Recall of prerequisites, similar tasks, and strategies
Q:
Lapses that inhibit transfer of training typically take place when trainees:
a. use previously learned, less effective capabilities instead of applying the capabilities emphasized in the training program.
b. make performance of a task, recall of knowledge, or demonstration of a skill so automatic that it requires little thought or attention.
c. complete practice exercises at one time within a lesson or class rather than distributing the exercises within the lesson.
d. identify learned material in long-term memory and use it to influence performance.
Q:
Which of the following is a disadvantage of communities of practice (COPs)?
a. Employees are reluctant to participate without an incentive and fear sharing their knowledge with others.
b. They are not naturally occurring in companies; hence, they have to be forced.
c. Social interaction is discouraged; hence, learning occurs off the job.
d. They make it tedious for employees to share best practices, learn from one another, and improve business processes.
Q:
Learner-learner interaction is most appropriate when learners have to:
a. master a task that is completed alone.
b. maximize their critical thinking and analysis skills.
c. acquire personal knowledge based on experience.
d. enhance their self-awareness and self-assessment.
Q:
_____ refers to the learners involvement with the training material and assessing their progress toward learning.
a. Automatization
b. Self-regulation
c. Elaboration
d. Generalization
Q:
_____ refers to individual control over ones thinking.
a. Modeling
b. Instrumentality
c. Valence
d. Metacognition
Q:
Good decisiveness, practical application of ideas, and hypothetical deductive reasoning are learning characteristics of individuals in the _____ learning style.
a. converger
b. diverger
c. assimilator
d. accommodator
Q:
The learning cycle for a trainee begins with a(n) _____.
a. reflective observation
b. concrete experience
c. abstract conceptualization
d. active experimentation
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of organizing as a learning strategy?
a. It focuses on memorization of training content.
b. It focuses on learning through repetition of training content.
c. It requires the learner to find similarities and themes in the training material.
d. It requires the trainee to relate the training material to other, more familiar knowledge, skills, or behaviors.
Q:
In the learning processes, semantic encoding typically involves:
a. informing learners of the lesson objective.
b. providing learning guidance to the learners.
c. providing learners cues that are used in recall.
d. providing feedback about performance correctness.
Q:
_____ is a learning process that involves identifying learned material in long-term memory and using it to influence performance.
a. Generalizing
b. Semantic encoding
c. Retrieval
d. Gratifying
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of closed skills?
a. They require the trainee to adapt the general principles to fit a wide range of circumstances.
b. They refer to training objectives that are linked to general learning principles.
c. They refer to training objectives that are linked to learning specific skills that are to be identically produced by the trainee on their job.
d. They are more difficult to train than open skills.
Q:
According to the _____, transfer will be maximized to the degree that the tasks, materials, equipment, and other characteristics of the learning environment are similar to those encountered in the work environment.
a. theory of identical elements
b. stimulus generalization approach
c. cognitive theory of transfer
d. information processing theory
Q:
In expectancy theory, a belief that performing a given behavior is associated with a particular outcome is called _____.
a. valence
b. instrumentality
c. maintenance
d. generalizing
Q:
Which of the following creates a learning orientation in trainees?
a. Emphasizing trained task performance
b. Emphasizing competition among trainees
c. Ensuring trainees completely avoid errors and mistakes
d. Allowing trainees to experiment with new knowledge and skills
Q:
Kenneth, an operations manager has been assigned to train a group of older employees in the logistics department. He has to train them to use the new computer software which was installed recently. He does so by reminding them that they were quick in learning to use the previous software. Kenneth is typically trying to _____.
a. increase the employees self-efficacy
b. deter expectancies of the employees
c. create motor reproduction
d. raise the valence of the behavior
Q:
Logical verification to increase self-efficacy typically involves:
a. perceiving a relationship between a new task and a task already mastered.
b. trying out the observed behaviors to see if they result in the same reinforcement that a model received.
c. motivating trainees by having employees who have mastered the learning outcomes demonstrate them for trainees.
d. determining the degree of support and negative consequences in the work setting for using newly acquired capabilities.
Q:
_____ is a persons judgment about whether he or she can successfully learn knowledge and skills.
a. Self-efficacy
b. Self-actualization
c. Self-esteem
d. Self-concept
Q:
According to the _____ theory, models behavior or skill that is rewarded is adopted by an observer.
a. information processing
b. social learning
c. expectancy
d. goal setting
Q:
The training implication of _____ theory includes a trainer identifying the outcomes that a learner considers most positive or negative.
a. information processing
b. identical elements
c. reinforcement
d. David McClellands need
Q:
Behavior modification is a training method that is primarily based on _____.
a. goal setting theory
b. information processing theory
c. expectancy theory
d. reinforcement theory
Q:
Intellectual skill as a learning outcome primarily includes the capability to:
a. state or describe previously stored information.
b. apply generalizable concepts and rules to solve complex problems.
c. execute a physical action with precision and timing.
d. choose a personal course of action.
Q:
Which of the following types of learning outcome is reflected through the ability to design and code a computer program that meets customer requirements?
a. Cognitive strategies
b. Attitudes
c. Intellectual skills
d. Motor skills
Q:
_____ relates to the learners decision regarding what information to attend to, how to remember, and how to solve problems.
a. Cognitive strategy
b. Motor skill
c. Attitude
d. Verbal information
Q:
Which of the following examples best reflects attitude as a learning outcome?
a. State three reasons for following company safety procedures.
b. Design and code a computer program that meets customer requirements.
c. Choose to respond to all incoming mail within 24 hours.
d. Shoot a gun and consistently hit a small moving target.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of training?
a. Recognizing employees preferences regarding how they want to learn is not advisable in training.
b. It is important to realize that for training to be effective, both learning and transfer of training are needed.
c. Transfer of training is to be considered only after the completion of training.
d. Transfer of training involves having employees who already have mastered the learning outcomes demonstrate them for trainees.
Q:
How are competency models useful for training and development?
Q:
What are the options available if trainees reading level does not match the level needed for the training materials?
Q:
What is the role of upper-level managers in needs assessment?
Q:
What are the consequences if needs assessment is not properly conducted?
Q:
What are the three types of analysis involved in needs assessment?
Q:
Task analysis should be undertaken only after the organizational analysis has determined that the company wants to devote time and money for training.
a. True
b. False
Q:
If the critical job issue, process issue, and business issue are related, training should be a top priority.
a. True
b. False
Q:
One of the most powerful ways to motivate employees to attend and learn from training is to communicate the personal value of the training.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Work-group norms may encourage employees not to meet performance standards.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Employees lack of awareness of performance standards is a problem that training can fix.
a. True
b. False
Q:
To motivate employees to learn in training programs, they need to be given a choice of what training programs to attend.
a. True
b. False
Q:
To motivate employees to learn in training programs, managers should avoid informing the employees about their skill weaknesses or knowledge deficiencies.
a. True
b. False
Q:
A nontraining option to match trainees reading level with the level needed for the training materials involves redesigning a job to accommodate the trainees reading levels.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Determining a jobs cognitive ability requirement is part of the task analysis process.
a. True
b. False
Q:
The importance of cognitive ability for job success increases with job complexity.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Possession of a high school diploma or a college degree is a guarantee that an employee has basic skills.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Age, or even the generation an employee belongs to, does not affect how they prefer to learn.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Output refers to the type of incentives employees receive for performing well.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Questionnaires do not allow many employees to participate in the needs assessment process.
a. True
b. False
Q:
No single method of conducting needs assessment is superior to the others.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Job incumbents should be included as SMEs in the needs assessment process since they tend to be the most knowledgeable about the job.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Subject-matter experts (SMEs) must have an understanding of the companys language, tools, and products.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Upper-level managers are not usually involved in identifying which employees need training or the tasks for which training is needed.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Upper-level managers view the needs assessment process by focusing on specific jobs.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Pressure points such as changes in customer preferences or employees lack of basic skills do not necessarily mean that training is the right solution.
a. True
b. False
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of rapid needs assessment?
a. It involves using a large amount of resources such as money and SMEs.
b. It ultimately results in the sacrifice of the quality of the process.
c. Its scope is independent of the size of the potential pressure point.
d. It opts for methods that provide results in which trainers have the greatest confidences.
Q:
In the process of developing a competency model, the job or position to be analyzed is identified after:
a. the needs assessment strategy is selected.
b. the effective and ineffective job performers are identified.
c. the business strategy and goals are identified.
d. the competencies responsible for effective and ineffective performance are identified.
Q:
The first step in developing a competency model is:
a. to identify the job or position to be analyzed.
b. to identify the business strategy.
c. to select the needs assessment strategy.
d. to identify effective and ineffective job performers.
Q:
The difference between job analysis and competency models is that:
a. competency modeling is more work- and task-focused, whereas job analysis is worker-focused.
b. competency models describe employees skills, knowledge, abilities and personal characteristics that are common across jobs, whereas job analysis describes what is different across jobs.
c. competency modeling is used to generate specific requirements of employees for a job, and job analysis is used to generate more general requirements.
d. job analysis can be applied to selection, training, employee development, and performance management unlike competency models.
Q:
Which of the following statements is true of competency models?
a. They are not useful for recruitment and selection.
b. They fail to identify the best employees to fill open positions.
c. They cannot be used for performance management.
d. Traditionally, needs assessment failed to focus on competencies.
Q:
The first step in task analysis is to:
a. develop a preliminary list of tasks performed on the job.
b. select the job or jobs to be analyzed.
c. identify the KSAOs important for successful task performance.
d. identify important and frequently performed tasks for which training is required.
Q:
In task analysis, the next step after selecting the job or jobs to be analyzed is to:
a. identify the knowledge, skills, or abilities necessary to perform the tasks successfully.
b. develop a preliminary list of tasks performed on the job by talking to those who have performed a task analysis.
c. have a group of SMEs validate a preliminary list of tasks through a meeting or through a written survey.
d. separate important, frequently performed tasks from tasks that are not important and are infrequently performed.
Q:
Which one of the following is true of task analysis?
a. It should be undertaken before organizational analysis.
b. It involves breaking a task into several jobs.
c. It is a simple process that requires minimum time commitment compared to the other processes.
d. It involves gathering and summarizing data from many different persons in the company.
Q:
Which of the following issues is addressed by task analysis?
a. Who needs training?
b. What is the focus of training?
c. Does training support the companys strategic direction?
d. Should the training be built or bought?
Q:
In which of the following instances is training required for employees?
a. Employees have the knowledge and skill to perform a job, but they have inadequate input.
b. Employees have the knowledge and skill to perform a job, but they lack feedback.
c. Employees lack the knowledge and skill to perform a job, but the other factors are satisfactory.
d. Employees have the knowledge and skill to perform a job, but the consequences are inadequate.
Q:
Which of the following is considered as a part of input in the process for analyzing the factors that influence employee performance and learning?
a. Awareness of performance standard
b. Social support
c. Understanding the level of proficiency
d. Work-group norms
Q:
Which of the following statements is true about age and generation in the context of training?
a. The speed at which people process information increases as they age.
b. Gen Xers dislike close supervision.
c. Baby boomers are technology-literate and they appreciate diversity.
d. Traditionalists prefer more of a self-directed training environment.
Q:
Employees self-efficacy level can be increased by:
a. letting them know that the purpose of training is to identify areas in which employees are incompetent.
b. providing limited information about the training program and the purpose of training prior to the actual training.
c. convincing them that they lack the ability and the responsibility to overcome learning difficulties they experience.
d. showing them the training success of their peers who are now in similar jobs.
Q:
Which of the following is considered as cognitive ability?
a. Sociability
b. Psychomotor ability
c. Quantitative ability
d. Emotional stability
Q:
In the person analysis, _____ relates to the instructions that tell employees what, how, and when to perform.
a. output
b. input
c. consequence
d. feedback
Q:
Employees readiness for training includes identifying whether:
a. an organizations work environment will facilitate learning and not interfere with performance.
b. an organization should develop training programs by itself or if it should buy them from a vendor or a consulting firm.
c. peers and managers attitudes and behaviors toward the employees are supportive.
d. managers are using a similar frame of reference when they evaluate associates using same competencies.
Q:
In the needs assessment process, organizational analysis deals with identifying:
a. the training resources that are available.
b. employees personal characteristics.
c. the conditions under which tasks are performed.
d. the employees who require training.
Q:
_____ refers to the process of a company using information about other companies training practices.
a. Brainstorming
b. Crowdsourcing
c. Outsourcing
d. Benchmarking
Q:
_____ refers to asking a large group of employees to help provide information for needs assessment that they are not traditionally asked to do.
a. Crowdsourcing
b. Historical data review
c. Focus group
d. Benchmarking
Q:
_____ are useful with complex or controversial issues that one person may be unable or unwilling to explore.
a. Questionnaires
b. Observations
c. Focus groups
d. Historical data reviews
Q:
Which of the following method of needs assessment is inexpensive and allows the collection of data from a large number of persons?
a. Questionnaire
b. Observation
c. Focus group
d. Interview