Q&A Hero

Q: _____ refers to the integrated use of training and development, organizational development, and career development to improve individual, group, and organizational effectiveness. a. Six Sigma b. Knowledge management c. Business process reengineering d. Human resource development

Q: Which of the following statements is true of training? a. The reporting relationship between human resource management and the training function is standard across companies. b. Including training as part of the human resource function allows the training function to be decentralized to better respond to unique needs in different business units. c. Organizational development professionals are seldom responsible for training. d. For training and development to succeed, employees, managers, training professionals, and top managers all have to take ownership.

Q: Team building, conflict avoidance, and change management are typically specialized by_____ professionals. a. talent management b. organizational development c. quality management d. informal learning

Q: Training and development activities in a company are said to be outsourced when they are provided by _____. a. in-house consultants b. company managers c. company trainers d. government organizations

Q: In the ASTD competency model, the _____ plans, obtains, and monitors the effective delivery of learning and performance solutions to support the business. a. project manager b. learning strategist c. business partner d. knowledge worker

Q: According to the ASTD competency model, a business partner: a. determines how workplace learning can be best used to help meet the companys business strategy. b. plans and monitors the effective delivery of learning and performance solutions to support the business. c. designs, delivers, and evaluates learning and performance solutions. d. uses industry knowledge to create training that improves performance.

Q: The ASTD competency model: a. is designed to help sales associates make more personal connections with shoppers. b. describes companywide effort to continuously improve the ways people, machines, and systems accomplish work. c. describes what it takes for an individual to be successful in the training and development field. d. is a framework to analyze competition in an industry and formulate a business strategy.

Q: _____ refer to teams that are separated by time, geographic distance, culture, and/or organizational boundaries and that rely almost exclusively on technology to interact and complete their projects. a. Quality circles b. Virtual teams c. Six Sigma teams d. Ad hoc teams

Q: _____ involves highly trained employees known as Champions, Master Black Belts, Black Belts, and Green Belts. a. Six Sigma b. Lean manufacturing c. Instructional System Design d. Just-in-time

Q: The core value of _____ is the prevention of the occurrence of errors in a product or service rather than detection and correction. a. ISD b. ADDIE c. PERT d. TQM

Q: _____ is a companywide effort to continuously improve the ways people, machines, and systems accomplish work. a. Stakeholder management b. Diversity management c. Total quality management d. Talent management

Q: Which of the following statements is true of Millennials? a. They are also known as Generation X or Baby Boomers. b. They grew up during a time when the divorce rate doubled, the number of women working outside the home increased, and the personal computer was invented. c. They are often considered to be workaholics and rigid in conforming to rules. d. They are believed to have high levels of self-esteem, to the point of narcissism sometimes.

Q: _____ capital refers to the sum of the attributes, life experiences, knowledge, inventiveness, energy, and enthusiasm that the companys employees invest in their work. a. Intellectual b. Human c. Customer d. Social

Q: Which of the following is an example of human capital? a. Corporate culture b. Patent c. Customer loyalty d. Work-related competence

Q: _____ refers to the process of moving jobs from the United States to other locations in the world. a. Inpatriation b. Job rotation c. Offshoring d. Insourcing

Q: Which of the following training programs is mandated by law? a. Orientation training program b. Leadership development program c. Safety training program d. Cross-culture training program

Q: The ADDIE model is most closely associated with: a. employee recruitment and selection. b. employee training and development. c. diversity management. d. quality management.

Q: Which of the following statements is true of the Instructional System Design (ISD) model? a. There is a single universally accepted instructional systems development model. b. The model rarely follows a neat, orderly, step-by-step approach of activities. c. The model eliminates the need for trainers to provide detailed documents of each activity found in the model. d. The model has no underlying assumptions.

Q: Which of the following steps of the training design process involves person and task analysis? a. Ensuring transfer of training b. Developing an evaluation plan c. Conducting needs assessment d. Monitoring and evaluating the program

Q: The fifth step in the training design process is to develop an evaluation plan that involves identifying: a. an appropriate training method. b. the requirements for training. c. employees with motivation and basic skills. d. the types of outcomes training is expected to influence.

Q: _____ refers to a systematic approach for developing training programs. a. Total quality management b. Continuous learning c. Training design process d. Orientation training program

Q: A(n) _____ is an example of tacit knowledge. a. employees experience b. business process c. flowchart d. formula

Q: Which of the following is true of tacit knowledge? a. It is easily codified and transferred from person-to-person. b. Formulas and definitions are examples of tacit knowledge. c. Formal training and development programs limit the extent to which tacit knowledge can be acquired. d. It cannot be shared through employee personal interactions with peers, colleagues, and experts.

Q: Informal learning: a. is developed and organized by a company. b. is not required for the development of human capital. c. cannot be controlled by the employees. d. leads to the effective development of tacit knowledge.

Q: Which of the following statements is true of human capital? a. Human capital is an organizations tangible asset. b. Motivation to deliver high-quality products and services is a part of human capital. c. It is easy to imitate or purchase an organizations human capital. d. Human capital is standardized throughout all companies.

Q: The maturity curve approach to job evaluation uses _______ to define the Y axis

Q: The actual rate of pay minus the minimum rate of pay divided by the spread of the range is(a) efficiency ratio(b) compa ratio(c) range index(d) range spread

Q: Cost-of-living adjustments are usually related to which one of the following indexes?(a) GNP(b) CPI(c) CLU(d) CUI

Q: The term keeping an employee whole means(a) job requirements must never be lowered(b) pay equals responsibilities and duties(c) pay keeps abreast of economic changes(d) pay relates directly to performance

Q: A major reason for giving seniority based pay increases is to recognize(a) long life(b) performance(c) demonstrated abilities(d) loyalty

Q: Red circle commonly refers to someone who(a) is on probation(b) is paid above the maximum of the range(c) receives a pay increase that exceeds the guidelines(d) has a compa ratio higher than can be justified by the performance appraisal

Q: If an employee's rate of pay is $12,000 and the employee's job is assigned to a pay grade with a maximum of $15,000 and a minimum of $10,000, the Range Index is(a) 20 percent(b) 40 percent(c) 50 percent(d) 60 percent

Q: By using a control point based salary administration program, an organization can eliminate the need for(a) job evaluation(b) setting minimum and maximum rates of pay on pay grades(c) annually rating employee performance(d) analyzing market pay data

Q: A compa ratio index moving toward 12 would seem to indicate all but one of the following:(a) a senior work force in the pay grade(b) possible inflation of employee performance when recognizing merit in in-step increases(c) pay rates not in line with market conditions(d) many entry-level employees in the pay grade

Q: What would a compa ratio of 110 indicate?(a) salary range is competitive with market(b) salary range is low in relation to market(c) salary range is high in relation to market(d) average salaries paid are ten percent above the midpoint of the salary range

Q: What is the compa ratio of an employee who has a salary of $4,300 a month with a range of $3,400 minimum to $5,000 maximum?(a) .79(b) .86(c) 1.02(d) 1.5

Q: Which one of the following is not a valuable use of the compa ratio?(a) correctly evaluating job worth(b) comparing pay distribution among departments(c) relating performance ratings to pay adjustments(d) establishing merit budgets

Q: Concerning the comparation, an index number of _______ normally indicates that there is an acceptable distribution of employees in the grade.(a) 10(b) 12(c) 08(d) 20

Q: Compa ratio can be defined as the ratio of:(a) pay of employee_____ average pay of all employees(b) pay of individual(s), unit, etc________________ midpoint x n (if more than one n is included in the numerator)(c) midpoint rate of pay__________ pay of individual or unit being measured(d) pay of individual, unit, etc__ maximum possible rate of pay

Q: Many organizations establish in their compensation policy a minimum difference between the pay of a supervisor and his or her highest-paid subordinate. The most commonly found pay difference is(a) 10%(b) 40%(c) 15%(d) 50%

Q: Which one of the following factors has the least influence on the percentage pay increase an employee receives when moving from one job to another?(a) seniority in the organization(b) pay of grade at prior job and pay grade of new job(c) difference in overall job requirements(d) difference in points assigned prior job and points assigned new job (where a point factor job evaluation plan is used)

Q: When using maturity curve data for salary administration purposes and an organization groups its employees into the top 10 percent, next 15 percent, middle 50 percent, etc, the second group (next 15 percent) would probably be paid equivalent to the ______ percentile in their respective years since BS degree.(a) 25(b) 50(c) 75(d) 90

Q: A common date for reviewing the performance of all employees may be most appropriate when salary adjustments are based on(a) date of entry into job(b) date of hire into organization(c) performance as compared with the performance of other employees(d) performance rating based strictly on individual's performance

Q: Which one of the following is normally not considered in designing a merit guidechart?(a) job value score(b) employee's location in pay grade(c) employee's performance rating(d) time since last rating

Q: If an organization has six different levels of performance with distinguished being the highest and wishes to approximate a normal distribution, what percentage of employees would receive the distinguished rating?(a) 1(b) 5(c) 10(d) 35

Q: Merit guidecharts are being used in conjunction with performance appraisal to determine pay adjustments. Guidecharts usually identify(a) the employee's last pay increase and any bonuses received(b) the employee's current performance rating and location in the pay grade(c) the employee's performance ratings during employment(d) the employee's attendance and overtime records

Q: When an employee is being paid in the 4th quartile of a pay grade, it means that(a) the employee is on the job with less than minimal qualifications(b) the employee has performed in a superior manner for a sustained period of time(c) the employee has consistently performed in an acceptable manner for at least two years(d) the employee performs at a marginal level

Q: What level of performance does the following describe? Consistently performs all responsibilities in a fully satisfactory manner is fully trained and normally has 2 to 4 years' experience on the job?(a) 1st quartile(b) 90th percentile(c) probationary range(d) midpoint

Q: A pay structure policy that lags the market is one that adjusts the pay structure for(a) the projected market at the end of the operating/budget year(b) the market level at start of the operating/budget year(c) the market level at the middle of the operating/budget year(d) the market level at the time of a pay survey (normally 3 months before the start of the operating/budget year)

Q: At the beginning of a given year, the Shipping Department has four people, each paid $1,000 a month In that year, each of these employees receives a monthly pay raise of $100. These raises are given March 1, June 1, August 1, and November 1, respectively. The raises increased the payroll cost for the year by(a) 5%(b) 7%(c) 9%(d) 10%

Q: Excluding state tax and Social Security, what gross payment would be required to yield an after-tax payment of $1,000 to an employee in a 20% tax bracket?(a) $800(b) $1,000(c) $1,200(d) $1,250

Q: If an organization's current payroll cost is $100,000 and the cost increases 10% every year, what will the payroll cost be at the end of five years?(a) $140,000(b) $150,000(c) $161,000(d) $173,000

Q: Which one of the following pay-related decisions makes the poorest use of steps inside a pay grade?(a) cost-of-living(b) seniority(c) merit(d) performance improvements

Q: Which one of the following variables is least likely to be included in pay increase policies and guidelines?(a) past pay increases(b) employee's tenure(c) employee's performance rating(d) timing of employee's pay adjustments

Q: A small, select committee of members of the board of directors who review the pay and benefits practices of the organization is the ________ committee.(a) executive(b) merit budget(c) compensation(d) salary administration

Q: In most organizations, the _________ department is usually responsible for developing the budget allocation.(a) human resources(b) finance(c) executive(d) compensation

Q: A merit budget(a) includes all personnel pay costs in gross figures(b) is theoretically the money allocated for rewarding value performance(c) is money allocated to be used to pay the top performers of the organization(d) provides for an annual review of all jobs and their assigned grade levels

Q: The rapid expansion of the benefits program over the past three decades has been attributed to all of the following except(a) the imposition of wage ceilings during WW II(b) increased employee interest in receiving a tax shelter from recent past inflation causing rising wage levels(c) union influence has raised wages to the point where most employees' basic needs are satisfied, therefore causing an increased interest in greater benefits(d) pressures from recent legal decisions require all employers to have a benefits package including life insurance, health insurance, minimum two-weeks annual leave, Workers' Compensation, auto insurance, and sick leave

Q: Match the benefit in the right-hand column that best fits the kind of benefit program listed in the left-hand column:Benefit ProgramBenefit30. Loss-of-Income Continuation(a) Workers' Compensation31. Spouse and Family Income(b) Major medical Protection32. Disability Income Continuation(c) Unemployment insurance33. Health and Accident Protection(d) Pension plans34. Deferred income(e) Accidental Death & Dismemberment

Q: Section 125 plans have all but which one of the following features?(a) employees can convert a portion of taxable wages into nontaxable dollars to pay for specific benefits(b) employees can receive any dollars not spent at end of year and pay tax on these dollars(c) nontax dollars can be spent to pay for health-care insurance premiums(d) elections must be made before beginning of plan year

Q: The cafeteria type of benefit plan is so named because it(a) originated in the restaurant industry(b) is used primarily for blue-collar workers(c) provides participants with alternative choices(d) requires participants to contribute to the cost

Q: A core flexible compensation plan consists of(a) modules or packages of benefits(b) fixed dollars of credit to buy any of a wide variety of benefits with available credits(c) a salary reduction plan to allow employees to use pre-tax dollars to pay their share of the cost of benefits(d) a certain number of dollars credit to purchase benefits in addition to provided core benefits

Q: Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a cafeteria style benefit plan?(a) reduced administrative costs(b) turnover should theoretically be reduced(c) employees get only the benefits that are important to them(d) employees are most likely to have a clear idea of the cost of benefits

Q: HMOs are important in national health planning because they use(a) child care techniques(b) advanced medical techniques(c) outpatient psychiatric care(d) preventive medicine techniques

Q: Which of the following is included in hospital coverage?(a) child care(b) room and board(c) emergency loans(d) income replacement

Q: Supplemental Unemployment Benefits (SUBs) have all but which one of the following features?(a) employees can accumulate SUB credits(b) most plans set a level of payment of 60 to 65% of take-home pay(c) recipients are guaranteed a level of payments for at least five years(d) at GM, each employee receives one-half a GAI unit for each week worked to a maximum of 52 GAI units

Q: Why do most organizations pay an out-of-town job applicant's moving expenses?(a) to reduce turnover(b) it is required by law(c) to avoid discrimination charges(d) it is an attractive recruiting device

Q: Which one of the following is considered by many to be a highly desirable perk?(a) company car(b) company-provided medical insurance(c) retirement plan(d) Christmas bonus

Q: Educational assistance plans most often reimburse the employee based on(a) type of school attended(b) attending a local institution(c) kind of position employee occupies(d) successful completion of the course

Q: Most educational assistance programs require the employee to take courses that(a) interest the employee(b) lead to a college degree(c) help the employee get a promotion(d) relate directly to work being performed

Q: The earned time, personal time, or non-fault time-off plan includes all but which one of the following qualities?(a) employee receives a certain amount of time off for each hour worked(b) employee earns time off even when using an earned day off(c) earned time off counts toward overtime during a scheduled workweek(d) employers must first determine how much time off they want an employee to earn

Q: Possibly the most abused employee benefit is(a) company expense account(b) company credit card(c) sick leave(d) health and accident insurance

Q: Time off with pay for which of the following is required by state law in some states?(a) attendance at funeral of parent(b) voting time(c) reserve training(d) appearance in court under subpoena

Q: Which of the following is not an example of pay for time not worked?(a) holidays(b) jury duty(c) tuition reimbursement(d) civic duty

Q: Disability income continuation payments are made through all but which one of the following plans?(a) severance plans(b) travel accident insurance(c) Social Security(d) sick leave

Q: In most states, the formula used to calculate disability payments is _______ of the disabled individual's average weekly wage.(a) 1/3(b) 1/2(c) 2/3(d) 3/4

Q: Workers in Puerto Rico and in 5 states who incur temporary disability arising from nonoccupational illness receive partial income maintenance through disability laws. These states include all of the following except(a) Hawaii(b) Georgia(c) New York(d) New Jersey

Q: Major components of disability income continuation include all but(a) LTD(b) major medical(c) Social Security(d) sick leave

Q: State laws now require almost every employer to provide employees with(a) health insurance(b) occupational disability insurance (Workers' Compensation)(c) life insurance(d) sick leave

Q: Standard features included in most life insurance plans are all but which one of the following?(a) inclusion of all employees regardless of health or physical condition(b) the right of an employee to convert to an individual life insurance policy without a physical examination upon leaving the business(c) insuring the employee and his/her dependents for 30 days after separation(d) discontinuation of coverage for retired employees