Q&A Hero

Q: The quality check developed for FES compares levels of all factors with rating of factor(a) Know-How(b) Accountability(c) Knowledge Required(d) Supervision Given

Q: The most heavily weighted factor in the Factor Evaluation System is(a) Problem Solving(b) Responsibility(c) Scope(d) Knowledge Required

Q: The Factor Evaluation System includes _____ compensable factors.(a) 3(b) 7(c) 9(d) 11

Q: A large job evaluation committee would be one consisting of more than _____ members.(a) 5(b) 7(c) 9(d) 11

Q: Which one of the following roles is not one performed by a job evaluation committee?(a) rank and rate jobs(b) write job descriptions(c) select benchmark jobs(d) select job evaluation method

Q: Match the definition of a specific compensable factor listed in the right-hand column with the appropriate compensable factor listed in the left-hand column:Compensable Factor Factor Definition28. Working Conditions(a) The experience, training, education, and ability required to perform a job under consideration not with the skills any employee may possess29. Responsibility(b) The measurement of the physical or mental exertion needed for performance of a job30. Skill(c) The extent to which an employer depends on the employee to perform the job as expected, with emphasis on the importance of job obligation31. Effort(d) The physical surroundings and hazards of a job, including dimensions such as inside vs outside work, excessive heat or cold, fumes, and other factors relating to poor ventilation

Q: Questions 24 through 27 have to do with the data shown in the table below The data in that table indicate the factor-by-factor evaluation of three executive jobs within Acme IndustriesJob VP VP FactorPresidentSalesManufacturing1Training and Skills120 100 1002Impact100 80 703Subordinate Population80 50 70 TOTAL 300 230 240Which of the three factors actually carried the least weight in the evaluation of the three jobs?(a) training and skills(b) impact(c) subordinate population(d) none of these

Q: The maturity curve method of job evaluation and pay administration uses all but which one of the following values for recognizing an incumbent's rate of pay?(a) years since baccalaureate degree(b) performance appraisal rating(c) age(d) job evaluation scores

Q: The job analysis method PAQ can also be used as a(a) point-factor job evaluation method(b) whole job ranking method(c) classification method(d) multiple regression-based evaluation method

Q: The suggested percentage difference according to Weber's Law regarding just perceptible differences is(a) 5%(b) 10%(c) 15%(d) 20%

Q: The guide chart profile method for establishing salary standards uses all of the following except:(a) know-how(b) problem-solving(c) accountability(d) effort

Q: A job evaluation method has three factors: skill (S), effort (E), and working conditions (W) A committee of employees stated that (S) was the most important or critical factor, (E) was worth 60 percent of (S), and (W) was worth 40 percent of (S) Using a normalizing procedure, what would be the correct weight for the factor (W)?(a) 40(b) 60(c) 20(d) 30

Q: Possibly the most powerful use of a point-factor job evaluation method occurs when it(a) recognizes market rates of pay in determining factor weights(b) is used for a factor-comparison analysis(c) separates exempt and nonexempt jobs(d) identifies gender difference requirements

Q: The experience, training, education, and ability required to perform a job under considerationnot with the skills an employee possesses is the definition of(a) skill(b) effort(c) responsibility(d) working conditions

Q: Compensable factors differentiate jobs by all but which one of the following?(a) knowledge(b) seniority(c) difficulty(d) responsibility

Q: When reviewing the objectives of the organization, it is often apparent that some compensable factors are more important than others. When this occurs, each factor must be(a) redistributed(b) weighted(c) amended(d) classified

Q: To what job evaluation system did the National Metal Trades Association make special contribution?(a) point factor(b) grade(c) ranking(d) factor comparison

Q: When using compensable factors to evaluate jobs, it is common practice to classify the factors into three major categories. Which of the following is not one of these categories?(a) universal factors(b) subfactors(c) degrees or levels(d) regional factors

Q: Which one of the following statements best describes compensable factors?(a) statements that define the specific attributes of a particular job more precisely(b) relatively abstract and complex qualities and features that relate to all kinds of jobs(c) skills used in solving growing related problems in jobs(d) physical working conditions surrounding a job

Q: Which of the following is not a key element of the Smyth-Murphy guide line method of market pricing?(a) a guide line scale(b) a job description containing scope data(c) market pricing(d) a vertical guide line display

Q: Which one of the following is not a paired-comparison method used for job ranking?(a) deck of cards(b) alternation ranking(c) merit guide chart(d) slotting

Q: Which one of the following is the most commonly used method of job evaluation?(a) market pricing(b) point factor(c) classification(d) factor comparison

Q: Which of the following job evaluation methods is not one of the whole job method?(a) ranking method(b) market-pricing method(c) factor comparison method(d) position classification method

Q: A major disadvantage of the ranking system is that it(a) is difficult to use(b) provides no yardstick for measuring the relative value of jobs(c) is too easily understood(d) is too flexible

Q: Which of the following job evaluation systems is the easiest to implement but potentially the most discriminating?(a) ranking(b) market guideline(c) point factors(d) classification

Q: Job evaluation methods can be categorized into two groups:(a) market-pricing guideline methods and market-pricing method(b) ranking methods and stub selection procedure(c) point-factor comparison methods and general point-factor comparison methods (NMTA, NEMA)(d) whole job methods and compensable factor-based methods

Q: Of the following, which one is not a major reason to implement a job evaluation program?(a) to provide a rational basis for negotiating pay rates when bargaining collectively with a recognized union(b) to develop a base for a merit or pay-for-performance program(c) to justify an existing pay structure or to develop one that provides for internal equity(d) to take advantage of legislation that permits incumbents to have lower income taxes

Q: A job evaluation program serves all but which of the following purposes for an organization?(a) orders jobs based on worth(b) assists in establishing an equitable and competitive pay structure(c) establishes grounds for firing(d) identifies promotional opportunities

Q: As defined in the text, job evaluation is(a) measuring an employee's performance(b) management's evaluation of the effectiveness of the job(c) the extent to which a job description fits the actual tasks of the job(d) the process of deciding the relative importance of one job as compared to another

Q: Match the description of an element of a job description listed in the right-hand column with the proper element listed in the left-hand column:Element Description21. Job Identification(a) Major end results22. Job Summary(b) Job worth data23. Job Definition(c) Word picture24. Job Accountabilities(d) Title25. Job Specifications(e) Responsibilities and duties

Q: Match the item description listed in the right-hand column with the specific element it relates to in the left-hand column:Element Description16. Standing Operating Procedures(a) Listing of required education, experience, physical requirements, and certificates17. Specifications(b) Description of an acceptable level of work18. Performance Standards(c) Job activities that must be performed by an incumbent19. Duties(d) A step-by-step description of how to perform work activities20. Employment Standards(e) Knowledge, responsibilities, and conditions within which a job is performed

Q: All but which one of the following statements are useful in describing the job definition section of a job description?(a) specifies knowledge and skill requirements(b) can be listed in a priority or hierarchical ordering(c) may include 3 to 10 major modules of work(d) should be updated when job requirements change

Q: The most critical part of the identification process in a job description is specifying(a) job status(b) job title(c) pay range(d) name of incumbent

Q: Job requirements are(a) emotional considerations(b) financial considerations(c) operational considerations(d) legal considerations

Q: Among the following benefits, which one would be an initial value of the job description to the organization?(a) pinpointing vital personnel requirement gaps as well as identifying unneeded positions or employees(b) giving the manager the authority to terminate an employee(c) providing required training(d) appraising individual performance

Q: Which of these terms allows for the most discretionary authority by the incumbent?(a) under general direction(b) under administrative direction(c) under immediate supervision(d) under direction

Q: Which of the following sections of a job description permits quick and easy identification as to whether or not the job is exempt or nonexempt relative to the requirements established under the Fair Labor Standards Act?(a) job title(b) job status(c) job duties(d) job summary

Q: A major weakness in using task or behavior inventories developed by recognized and respected organizations is that they(a) cover a wide variety of work(b) are too general to be helpful in identifying useful differences among specific jobs(c) have been pre-tested by the developer(d) require less developmental time

Q: Which one of the following would not normally be included within the Employment Standards section of a job description?(a) education level required(b) skill level required(c) physical standards(d) performance standards

Q: Which one of the following is most likely to have activity/task/duty statements that begin with the word May?(a) position description(b) class description(c) job description(d) job definition

Q: As one moves up the organizational ladder, the responsibility and duty statements are stated in(a) very precise terms(b) more general terms(c) goal-oriented terms(d) terms related to financial requirements

Q: What do titles like firefighter, police officer, and flight attendant have in common?(a) macho sounding(b) gender neutral(c) court mandated(d) required by law

Q: Combining groups of jobs for a particular organization into a specific class is accomplished based upon all of the following except(a) the jobs receive the same range of pay(b) the jobs can be referred to by the same class title even though they have different job titles(c) the jobs have similar responsibilities and duties(d) the jobs have the same performance standards

Q: Which one of the following jobs would most likely relate to the kind of supervision described under the code words Under general direction?(a) top executive(b) executive secretary(c) systems analyst(d) clerk

Q: Which of the following is not normally included within a job description?(a) job tasks(b) job performance standards(c) job specifications(d) job identification data

Q: There are at least as many _____ as there are incumbents(a) occupations(b) positions(c) jobs(d) class-series

Q: A task statement begins with(a) subject(b) job title(c) action verb(d) incumbent's name

Q: A _____________ is a coordinated series of work activity elements used to produce an identifiable and definable output that can be independently consumed or used.(a) goal(b) skill(c) task(d) behavior

Q: Which method is the most efficient way to collect a wide array of job content data in a relatively short period of time?(a) questionnaire(b) diary/logs(c) observation(d) interview

Q: In which one of the following job analysis methods would it be the easiest for employees with poor writing skills to provide job content data?(a) diary/log(b) checklist(c) open-ended questionnaire(d) interview

Q: The first step in job analysis is to(a) learn about the structure, operations, and jobs of the organization(b) determine the organization's use of job content and other related data(c) identify and select methods for collecting job content data(d) schedule the necessary and logical work steps

Q: A major barrier facing the implementation of an effective job analysis program is(a) must meet rigid federal guidelines(b) requires considerable time of all involved parties(c) has limited usefulness(d) cannot be kept current

Q: Structured questionnaires are useful for all but which one of the following reasons?(a) relatively easy to complete by incumbent(b) easy to review and assess by analyst(c) requires good incumbent writing skills(d) provides comparable data across a variety of jobs

Q: Job specification questionnaires provide information on(a) market value of job(b) knowledge and skills required of incumbent(c) tasks to be performed(d) personnel department's recommendations regarding job duties

Q: In addition to the incumbent, the best individual (or party) to contact to clarify task statements is(a) personnel subject-matter specialist(b) immediate supervisor(c) manager of unit(d) grievance specialist

Q: All but which one of the following are problems related to the use of the verb selection for a task statement?(a) introduces the what of the task(b) may have a variety of meanings(c) is jargon based(d) has subjective implications

Q: One of the first documents an employee should be asked to complete in the job analysis process is(a) list of tasks(b) knowledge and skills requirements to perform job assignments(c) working conditions(d) organization chart identifying supervisor reporting to and reporting subordinates

Q: A change occurring in the workplace that provides great promise for improving job analysis processes is(a) better educated work force(b) computer-based word processing(c) behavioral science influence on management(d) team-based work force

Q: A document that may be formally developed by the organization or even informally by an employee that can provide very useful job analysis information is(a) an organization chart(b) a job description(c) procedures manual(d) a process chart

Q: Match the activity listed in the right-hand column that takes place within the particular job analysis planning step listed in the left-hand column:Job Analysis Planning StepActivity21. Determine the use of organizational(a) Check organization charts, process job content and other related data charts, and procedure manuals22. Schedule the necessary and logical(b) Employment, training, job and work steps organizational design are potential users23. Learn about the structure, operations,(c) Forecast time requirements to and jobs of the organization complete various phases of a project24. Identify and select methods for(d) Interview incumbents and collecting job content data and observe work being other related facts performed

Q: Match the definitions listed in the right-hand column with the terms to which they best apply listed in the left-hand column:TermDefinition17. Duty(a) Any kind of action, movement, or behavior required of an incumbent to perform job assignments18. Responsibility(b) A coordinated series of work activities used to produce an identifiable and definable output which can be consumed or used19. Activity(c) One or more tasks performed to carry out a job responsibility20. Task(d) A statement(s) that, taken together, describes the general nature of the job They organize the job into broad but distinct categories

Q: What is the PAQ?(a) an intelligence test(b) a system for performance appraisal(c) an attitude survey technique(d) a job analysis questionnaire

Q: A job analysis methodology that describes what a worker does in relation to data, people, and things was developed by(a) United States Air Force(b) Southern Association of Colleges and Schools(c) US Department of Labor(d) Control Data Corp

Q: The US Air Force developed which one of the following job analysis methodologies?(a) FOCAS(b) V-TEC(c) CODAP(d) PAQ

Q: Match the piece of legislation identified in the right-hand column with the activity listed in the left-hand column to which it is most closely relatedActivity Federal LegislationActivityFederal Legislation20. Established unemployment(a) Fair Labor Standards Act compensation21. Enlarges opportunity for flexible(b) Age Discrimination in Employment benefits plan Act22. Facilitated the growth of unions(c) Social Security Act23. Expanded the importance of(d) National Labor Relations Act performance appraisal in termination proceedings24. Provides protection for minors(e) Revenue Act of 1978

Q: State laws requiring minimum wage payments higher than federal standards(a) are nonexistent(b) preempt federal standards(c) are limited to a maximum of 10 percent increase over federal standards(d) must be approved by USDOL

Q: A discrimination case involving federal legislation will first be heard in(a) US Circuit Court(b) US District Court(c) US Court of Appeals(d) US Supreme Court

Q: Which one of the following is currently imposing the largest rate of tax increases on ` an employee's pay?(a) indexing of income tax rates(b) Social Security tax rates and earnings base(c) capital gains taxes(d) increase in Workers' Compensation taxes

Q: Affirmative defenses permitted an employer under the EPA to include all but which one of the following?(a) education and experience of employee(b) seniority system(c) merit system(d) system that measures earnings by quantity or quality of production

Q: In an equal pay case, the defendant may not resort to ___________ as a defense.(a) past company practices(b) responsibility(c) working conditions(d) skill

Q: Which of the following types of legislation has the least impact on compensation practices?(a) anti-trust legislation(b) income protection legislation(c) anti-discrimination legislation(d) tax treatment legislation

Q: The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967, as amended, prohibits discrimination on account of age against employees in what complete age range?(a) 40 - no top(b) 40-70(c) 50-65(d) 50-70

Q: ERISA is associated with which of the following deferred income plans?(a) Social Security(b) severance payments(c) pension plans(d) unemployment insurance

Q: When workers are permanently displaced as a result of plant closings, technological advances, or economic depression, they may receive a payment called _______________ to assist in maintaining a standard of living until new employment is found.(a) pension(b) time off with pay(c) cost of living adjustment(d) severance pay

Q: In most states, who pays for unemployment compensation insurance?(a) employees only(b) employers only(c) the government only(d) a combination of employers, employees, and government

Q: The Social Security program is intended to indemnify employees against(a) loss of earnings(b) loss of employment(c) job connected injuries(d) the inflationary spiral

Q: Unemployment compensation is actually Title IX of which major piece of income protection legislation?(a) Workers' Compensation Law of 1911(b) Trade Act of 1974(c) Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938(d) The Social Security Act of 1935

Q: Workers' Compensation is provided through(a) Social Security Act(b) Workers' Compensation Act(c) 50 different state laws(d) HMO Act

Q: National legislation which required construction contractors receiving federal funds to pay at least the prevailing wage is the(a) Fair Labor Standards Act(b) Davis-Bacon Act(c) Fair Pay Act(d) Workers' Compensation Act

Q: A student can work for a sawmill that is covered by the Fair Labor Standards Act if that student is at least what minimum age?(a) 14(b) 16(c) 18(d) 21