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Q:
An employer wants to learn as much as possible about the cognitive abilities and job-based knowledge of candidates. What types of personnel tests would the employer most likely use? What types of interview questions would the employer most likely ask?
Q:
What is a management assessment center? What else can managers use these centers for besides selection? Provide two examples of typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers.
Q:
Interest inventories are useful for career planning because they compare the interests of the test taker to the interests of those people in various occupations.
Q:
The primary focus of the Global Competencies Inventory is to measure an individual's ________.
A) cognitive skills
B) level of adaptability
C) ability to learn a foreign language
D) degree of international knowledge
Q:
Which of the following is most likely a true statement about using personality tests in the selection process?
A) Personality tests fail to assist with job performance predictions.
B) Employers are using personality tests less frequently than in the past.
C) Extroversion shows a consistent relationship with all job performance criteria.
D) Fake responses on personality tests can be identified through minor eye movements.
Q:
Which of the following tests measures what someone has learned?
A) achievement test
B) job knowledge test
C) cognitive ability test
D) aptitude test
Q:
Carter Vacuums needs to hire 20 new employees to fill positions at its manufacturing facility. The HR department wants to minimize the costs related to screening applicants but also wants the assessment method to be highly valid to the specific jobs. Which of the following would be the best choice for Carter Vacuums?
A) personality tests
B) cognitive ability tests
C) assessment centers
D) structured interviews
Q:
Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) individual presentations
B) leaderless group discussions
C) motor skills assessments
D) in-basket
Q:
Which of the following is the primary advantage of using management assessment centers in the selection process?
A) Development costs are very low.
B) Peers are effectively able to predict the success of applicants.
C) Minimal time is required for test administration.
D) Industrial psychologists are involved in the testing process.
Q:
A ________ is a simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations and receive scores based on their performance.
A) work sampling event
B) video-based situational
C) miniature job evaluation
D) management assessment center
Q:
Which of the following is used to measure job knowledge?
A) work samples
B) projective tests
C) achievement tests
D) interest inventories
Q:
An interest inventory compares an applicant's current interests with the interests of ________.
A) retired workers
B) younger individuals
C) other people in the same industry
D) other people in various occupations
Q:
Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employees that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin's core valueshonor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledgeserve as the basis for all of the firm's decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee's uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process.
Which of the following, if true, would undermine the argument that Red Robin should use achievement tests in the employee selection process?
A) Red Robin provides a two-week training session to all new hires, which are frequently college students with little experience in the restaurant industry.
B) Red Robin requires applicants for cashier positions to take typing tests to assess their speed at the cash register.
C) Red Robin expects applicants for management positions to understand current EEO laws and be aware of ADA requirements.
D) Red Robin receives so many applications that it only considers individuals with previous job experience in the restaurant industry.
Q:
Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employees that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin's core valueshonor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledgeserve as the basis for all of the firm's decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee's uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process.
Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that Red Robin should use personality tests in the employee selection process?
A) Red Robin desires employees with extensive knowledge of the restaurant industry and at least 2 years of experience serving customers.
B) Red Robin encourages employees to participate in the firm's environmental stewardship program to show community support.
C) Red Robin seeks outgoing, motivated, and compassionate employees to enhance the experience of its customers.
D) Red Robin employees receive extensive training and are provided with opportunities to be promoted to management positions.
Q:
While some personality characteristics are associated with success in different types of jobs, which personality trait is most frequently associated with job performance in all jobs?
A) openness to experience
B) conscientiousness
C) agreeableness
D) extroversion
Q:
Mike Simmons has recently applied for a position with Pfizer Pharmaceuticals. Which personality trait most likely has the strongest correlation to Mike's success as a pharmaceutical sales representative?
A) openness to experience
B) emotional stability
C) extroversion
D) agreeableness
Q:
House-Tree-Person and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test are examples of ________ tests.
A) projective
B) apperception
C) intelligence
D) achievement
Q:
According to experts, most people are hired for their qualifications and fired for their ________.
A) physical limitations
B) lack of aptitude
C) nonperformance
D) inadequate cognitive skills
Q:
All of the following are most likely assessed on personality tests EXCEPT ________.
A) sensitivity
B) reasoning
C) introversion
D) motivation
Q:
________ tests include tests like finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and reaction time.
A) Motor ability
B) Personality
C) Achievement
D) Interest
Q:
As part of the selection process for a position at UPS, Jack has been asked to lift weights and jump rope. Which of the following is most likely being measured by UPS?
A) interpersonal skills
B) physical abilities
C) achievements
D) cognitive skills
Q:
All of the following are measured by aptitude tests EXCEPT ________.
A) memory
B) temperament
C) numerical ability
D) deductive reasoning
Q:
Tests that measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability are called ________ tests.
A) aptitude
B) intelligence
C) achievement
D) comprehensive
Q:
________ tests include tests of general reasoning ability and tests of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning.
A) Personality
B) Achievement
C) Cognitive
D) Physical ability
Q:
Which of the following is NOT a "big five" personality dimension?
A) introversion
B) agreeableness
C) conscientiousness
D) emotional stability
Q:
How can background checks and preemployment tests help firms save both money and time?
Q:
How can the validity of a personnel test be determined? What types of personnel tests rate high and low in validity?
Q:
Explain the five steps in the validation process.
Q:
The strong correlation between test results and job performance has led to numerous expert recommendations that tests be used as the only selection tool in the hiring process.
Q:
A test that is criterion valid contains a fair sample of the tasks and skills actually needed for the job in question.
Q:
There are five steps in the validation process, beginning with analyzing the job and concluding with administering the test.
Q:
The American Psychological Association's standards for educational and psychological tests are legally enforceable by state and federal governments.
Q:
The validation of tests used as employment screening tools will most likely be conducted by the HR manager and line supervisor.
Q:
Equivalent form estimates compare test scores from the same test administered at two points in time to determine test equivalence.
Q:
A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions.
Q:
Tests administered for hiring purposes should be both valid and reasonable if used by a firm that adheres to evidence-based human resources.
Q:
Which term refers to sifting through large amounts of employee information to find patterns and identify traits that correlate with performance?
A) data mining
B) talent management
C) succession planning
D) workforce screening
Q:
ION Consulting is a small firm that cannot afford to conduct validity studies for the selection tools it uses. The HR director at ION plans to use a selection tool that is used by the firm's largest and most successful competitors. The decision by the HR director is most likely based on ________.
A) utility analysis
B) construct reliability
C) validity generalization
D) alternate form estimates
Q:
According to the text, which of the following factors led KeyBank to implement a virtual job try out candidate assessment screening tool?
A) high rate of employee thefts
B) low employee diversity
C) high employee turnover
D) low employee morale
Q:
Which assessment method has a high development cost?
A) cognitive ability tests
B) job knowledge tests
C) structured interviews
D) integrity tests
Q:
Blue Bay Hotels is in the process of modifying the assessment methods the company uses to hire new employees. In the past, the hotel chain has been accused by minority organizations of violating EEO laws in its hiring practices, regarding adverse impact. Which of the following selection rate criteria should Blue Bay Hotels use to avoid adverse impact towards its minority employment candidates?
A) Test selection rate of minority candidates is more than three-fifths of majority candidates' selection rates.
B) Test selection rate of minority candidates is less than three-fifths of majority candidates' selection rates.
C) Test selection rate of minority candidates is less than four-fifths of majority candidates' selection rates.
D) Test selection rate of minority candidates is more than four-fifths of majority candidates' selection rates.
Q:
Which of the following assessment methods has the lowest validity?
A) cognitive ability tests
B) job knowledge tests
C) structured interviews
D) personality tests
Q:
For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests.
Which of the following questions is most relevant to Golden Creamery's decision to implement preemployment testing for all franchises?
A) What is the best way for Golden Creamery to recruit both hourly and salaried employees?
B) How does testing correlate with Golden Creamery's mission and vision statements?
C) How will Golden Creamery ensure the confidentiality of an applicant's test results?
D) Should Golden Creamery use internal or external sources for job candidates?
Q:
According to the American Psychological Association, all of the following are rights of test takers EXCEPT the right to expect ________.
A) confidentiality of test results
B) tests to be the only selection tools for jobs
C) scores to be interpreted by qualified individuals
D) informed consent regarding the use of test results
Q:
Demonstrating the content validity of a test can be accomplished by showing that ________.
A) tasks performed on the test are general enough to apply to any type of job
B) scores on the test indicate both internal and external reliability
C) higher test scores are statistically equivalent to proven, long-term job success
D) conditions under which the test is administered resemble the work situation
Q:
What is the final step in the test validation process?
A) averaging test scores
B) analyzing the job
C) publishing the test
D) cross-validating
Q:
The first step in the validation process is ________.
A) creating a test battery
B) analyzing the job
C) administering tests
D) cross-validating
Q:
Which of the following terms refers to the accuracy with which a test fulfills the function for which it was designed?
A) validity
B) reliability
C) relevancy
D) consistency
Q:
The unreliability of a test would most likely be explained by all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) poor sampling of question material
B) inconsistent testing conditions
C) failure to predict job performance
D) differences in the test-taker
Q:
Which of the following describes how you would implement an internal comparison estimate to assess reliability?
A) Administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1.
B) Administer a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic; then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together.
C) Administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people.
D) Administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the job in question well.
Q:
________ is used as an estimate of reliability and involves administering two equivalent tests and then comparing the two resulting test scores.
A) Equivalent form estimate
B) Retest estimate
C) Internal comparison estimate
D) Criterion validity
Q:
Which of the following describes using a retest estimate to assess reliability?
A) administering a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic and then statistically analyzing the degree to which responses vary
B) administering the same test to the same people at two different times and comparing their test scores at time 2 with their scores at time 1
C) administering an employment test to measure the skills an individual needs to perform the job
D) administering a test to a person and then administering an equivalent test at a later time
Q:
All of the following are used for estimating reliability of a test EXCEPT ________.
A) retest estimates
B) equivalent form estimates
C) content validity estimates
D) internal comparison estimates
Q:
Which of the following terms refers to the consistency of scores obtained by the same person when retested with alternate forms of the same test?
A) equivalency
B) expectancy
C) reliability
D) validity
Q:
If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that the test is ________.
A) valid
B) invalid
C) reliable
D) unreliable
Q:
If a person scores a 70 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 110 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is ________.
A) valid
B) reliable
C) unreliable
D) inconsistent
Q:
A reliable employment test will most likely yield ________.
A) consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test
B) improved scores when a person takes the same test more than once in a single day
C) high scores when two different people are administered the test at different times
D) similar scores when two different people are administered the test at the same time
Q:
Which of the following factors would LEAST likely be needed to conduct a utility analysis of a firm's candidate screening process?
A) average test scores of applicants
B) median salaries
C) number of applicants tested
D) testing costs
Q:
Which of the following shows the degree to which using a selection measure improves the quality of
individuals selected for a job?
A) utility analysis
B) validity score
C) reliability coefficient
D) internal HR audit
Q:
Which of the following questions should most likely be answered by a utility analysis?
A) Does it pay to use the test?
B) Is the test valid and reliable?
C) Does the test comply with the EEOC?
D) Is the test considered infallible?
Q:
Effective employee screening will most likely ________.
A) improve team management skills
B) eliminate negative office politics
C) identify valid and reliable test procedures
D) reduce dysfunctional workplace behaviors
Q:
As a manager, what is the most important reason to select employees carefully?
A) meet industry and organizational standards
B) comply with federal and state labor laws
C) improve personal and organizational performance
D) establish a high-performing work system
Q:
What is the primary goal of employee selection?
A) achieving person-job fit
B) avoiding negligent hiring
C) developing a diverse workforce
D) maintaining valid test scores
Q:
For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests.
Which of the following, if true, supports the argument that Golden Creamery should require franchise owners to use the firm's preemployment tests?
A) Hourly employees at Golden Creamery stores typically remain with the company long enough to be promoted to management positions.
B) Annual turnover rates for hourly employees of Golden Creamery stores are three times the rate of comparable businesses.
C) Golden Creamery uses a series of videos to train new hires as well as a mentoring program that has proven successful in the past.
D) Individuals interested in working at a Golden Creamery store can complete online applications on the firm's website.
Q:
Hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards is considered ________.
A) improper screening
B) negligent hiring
C) unreliable testing
D) improper hiring
Q:
In a brief essay, explain some of the reasons that employers turn to private employment agencies for assistance in recruiting.
Q:
Offshoring means having outside vendors supply services that a firm's own employees previously did in-house, while outsourcing means having outside vendors abroad provide services once performed in-house.
Q:
Peter, a mechanical engineer, is employed by an outside technical services firm that has a contract with IBM. Peter will be working on a long-term project for IBM as an in-house temporary employee.
Q:
Due to EEO laws, firms are allowed to use contingency workers only for clerical or maintenance positions; managerial staff must consist of full-time employees of the firm.
Q:
Every state in the United States has a public, state-run employment service agency.
Q:
Local newspapers are typically a good source of blue-collar help and clerical employees, but they are not useful for finding any type of administrative workers.
Q:
Application service providers are online vendors that use their own servers and systems to handle recruiting tasks for firms.
Q:
All applicant tracking systems enable employers to identify and compare recruiting sources so that employers can know which sources produce the best job candidates.
Q:
Applicant tracking systems are software systems that assist managers with writing job descriptions and collecting application information.
Q:
The ".jobs" domain is primarily used by HR managers for succession planning purposes.
Q:
Online recruiting through social media network sites is generating quicker responses from job candidates than traditional online job boards and has also provided a means by which organizations can recruit older workers.
Q:
Based on recruitment research, which of the following management practices would LEAST likely improve recruiting effectiveness?
A) ensuring that the company website is attractive and updated
B) using applicant referrals from current employees
C) providing applicants with salary information
D) emphasizing positive aspects of the job
Q:
According to recruitment research, which of the following is a true statement?
A) Recruitment materials with general job information improve recruiting.
B) The recruitment source has a significant effect on the reduction of turnover.
C) Job previews that address positive and negative aspects of a job increase turnover.
D) Organizational image has little if any effect on an applicant's initial reaction to a firm.
Q:
What is the benefit of intelligent automated rsum screening?
A) finding keywords and phrases of applicants
B) encouraging applicant-employer interaction
C) understanding an applicant's job preferences
D) posting highly detailed job descriptions
Q:
Which online recruiting method best enables candidates to get a feel for a company's working environment?
A) applicant tracking
B) virtual office tour
C) career interests game
D) intelligent automated rsum screening