Q&A Hero

Q: Not thinking too deeply or too systematically about ethical concerns a. isolates you from other people. c. ensures that no moral dilemmas arise. b. undermines your personal freedom. d. helps guide you to moral truth.

Q: In arguments over abortion, both the conservative and the liberal agree that a. abortion is the killing of an innocent person. b. abortion before birth would not be the killing of an innocent person. c. it is wrong to kill an innocent person. d. the unborn is not a person until birth.

Q: The deliberate and authorized causing of pain or harm to someone thought to have broken a law is known as a. vigilantism. c. legalism. b. punishment. d. attributivism.

Q: Which of the following is the overall point of the authors discussion of doing ethics? a. Doing ethics is difficult, but not doing it is foolish. b. Doing ethics requires many years of careful study. c. Most people should rely on wiser authorities to do ethics for them. d. Doing ethics is unavoidable for everyone.

Q: The liberal argues that if the unborn is not a person until birth, and it is wrong to kill a person, then a. infanticide is permissible. b. abortion before birth would be impermissible. c. abortion before birth would not be the killing of an innocent person. d. abortion is permissible before and after birth.

Q: The U.S. Supreme Court has ruled that if a jury were to impose the death penalty without any legal guidance, the practice would constitute a. a legal prerogative. c. a legal precedent. b. deserved punishment. d. cruel and unusual punishment.

Q: Most abortions are performed in the a. first twelve weeks of gestation. c. first three weeks. b. period just after viability. d. period just before viability.

Q: Which field or topic would include tasks such as accurately describing the moral codes and ethical standards of colonial America? a. normative ethics c. descriptive ethics b. applied ethics d. instrumental ethics

Q: ________ is making the use (and possession) of drugs a punishable offense, through the use of either fines or prison.

Q: The risk of death for women who have an abortion at eight weeks or earlier is a. 0.3 deaths per 100,000 abortions. c. one death per 1,000 abortions. b. one death per 100,000 abortions. d. one death per 10,000 abortions.

Q: Making the production and sale of drugs no longer a punishable crime is called ________.

Q: In Roe v. Wade, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that a. all abortions at any stage of pregnancy are permissible. b. in the first three months of pregnancy, a state may regulate (but not ban) abortion; after viability, a state may forbid abortions, even those necessary to preserve the health or life of the woman. c. in the first three months of pregnancy, the womans right to an abortion is unrestricted; after this period, a state may regulate and even forbid abortions. d. in the first three months of pregnancy, the womans right to an abortion is unrestricted; after this period, a state may regulate (but not ban) abortion; after viability, a state may regulate and even forbid abortions, except when abortion is necessary to preserve the health or life of the woman.

Q: Carol Gilligan called the approach to morality that emphasized rights and rules over caring and relationships an ethic of ________.

Q: The rate of gun ownership in the United States is among the highest rates in the world.

Q: The role played in moral theories of the principle of ________, which says that from the moral point of view, all persons are considered equal and should be treated accordingly, is called into question by feminist ethicists.

Q: Kantian ethics would likely condemn illicit drug use because it impairs autonomy.

Q: A natural law theorist would necessarily support all recreational drug use.

Q: Natural law theorists would determine that hard drug use should be discouraged, because it weakens autonomy and obscures the moral law.

Q: For many people, the most straightforward way to argue for or against guns is through some form of Kantian theory: judging a gun policy by its balance of good and bad effects, everyone considered.

Q: The deliberate termination of a pregnancy by surgical or medical (with drugs) means is known generally as a. therapeutic abortion. c. abortion, or induced abortion. b. trimester abortion. d. spontaneous abortion.

Q: One reason to support a harm-reduction drug policy is that criminalization of drugs has disproportionately affected minorities.

Q: An abortion specifically performed to protect the life or health of the mother is referred to as a. induced abortion. c. maternal abortion. b. spontaneous abortion. d. therapeutic abortion.

Q: A general definition of the term ________ is a nonfood chemical substance that can affect the functions or makeup of the body.

Q: Drug addiction is defined as an intense craving for the drug and compulsive, uncontrolled use of the drug despite harm done to the user or other people.

Q: The ethics of care might be thought of as an essential element of virtue ethics.

Q: Allowing people to use drugs without being liable to criminal prosecution and punishment is referred to as legalization.

Q: ________ is an approach to ethics focused on womens interests and experiences.

Q: If marijuana were decriminalized, but not legalized, this would likely mean that driving under the influence of marijuana would not be a crime.

Q: All feminist ethicists reject the traditional role played by principles in moral reasoning.

Q: Critics of paternalistic drug laws focus primarily on a. the harms created by such laws. b. the lack of enforceability of such laws. c. how such laws violate individuals liberty. d. how such laws mischaracterize the nature of the harms of drug use.

Q: We are naturally impartial toward the interests of our friends and family, which, according to feminist philosophers, is a reason to adopt the ethical theories of Kant and Mill.

Q: Within the context of drug legalization, some critics of legal moralism argue that, if legal moralism were applied in different contexts, other practices, like cheating at golf, plagiarizing, and lying to a spouse, would also have to be illegal. How is this intended as an objection to legal moralism? a. Its not clear why the immorality of drug use is sufficient for making it illegal, when the other also immoral practices are not against the law. b. Its not clear that drug use is immoral, which is the sole reason why legal moralists think it should be against the law. c. The consequences of keeping drug use illegal would likely result in more instances of these immoral practices. d. Drug use isnt inherently immoral, but these other practices are.

Q: The psychologist Carol Gilligan upended the belief that men and women think in radically different ways when making moral decisions when she argued that men and women think in exactly the same ways about morality.

Q: A common pro-gun argument appeals not to consequences but to rights. The right to own a gun derives from the more fundamental right of a. self-defense. c. autonomy. b. free speech. d. freedom.

Q: Virginia Held insists that moralities built on the image of the independent, autonomous, rational individual are clear and powerful ways of thinking about ethics.

Q: Multivitamins are considered a drug, as defined by doctors, nurses, and medical researchers.

Q: Unlike Kant, who maintained that reason is all that is necessary for making moral decisions, feminist ethicists insist that emotion should play a role, too.

Q: Sound film is traditionally shot at ________ frames per second. a. 16 d. 48 b. 24 e. 60 c. 30

Q: What are the three machines that bring images to the screen in three distinct stages? a. camera, processor, shutter d. camera, projector, shutter b. processor, projector, shutter e. camera, shutter, aperture c. camera, processor, projector

Q: Describe the significant similarities and differences between the film and digital processes in the production stage of filmmaking.

Q: Why do the frame rates for silent film vary compared to sound film?

Q: In 2015, almost 90 percent of the top 100 U.S.-grossing films were shot digitally and 100 percent of those films were edited and otherwise prepared for release digitally. However, there is a small but significant opposition to shooting digitally on the creative side from directors and cinematographers, in particular. Which directors are resisting the conversion to digital and what solution did the Hollywood studios come up with to address this issue?

Q: What takes place in the preproduction phase of cinema?

Q: What takes place in the production phase of cinema?

Q: What takes place in the postproduction phase of cinema?

Q: How did the post-1931 film industry organize its filmmaking process?

Q: Outline the main differences between the operations of the majors and their institutional rivals in the golden age studio system?

Q: What were the key factors that undermined the golden age studio system?

Q: What are the key factors in the marketing and distribution of a film?

Q: Based on the 2016 U.S. box office, identify the demographic composition of the moviegoing audience according to sex, race, and age.

Q: If a movie cost $150 million to produce, how much additional money will normally be spent on marketing and distribution? a. $50 million d. $150 million b. $75 million e. $225 million c. $100 million

Q: As an investor, your primary concern regarding a film you are financing is a. creating a quality film. b. producing a film that is critically successful. c. protecting your investment. d. ensuring that there is continuity across the film. e. making a film that is aesthetically rich.

Q: What is the primary function of a script supervisor? a. to arrange the financing of the film b. to record details of continuity from shot to shot c. to cast the actors d. to oversee the work of the cinematographer e. to supervise all postproduction activity

Q: Film technology involves a mechanical system that moves film stock through several machines: a camera, processer, and a projector. Describe how these three machines bring images to the screen in three distinct stages.

Q: Outline the primary differences between film and digital technologies. What are the prospects for digital cinema in the contemporary marketplace?

Q: As a studio producer seeking the largest possible audience for your film, which of the following movie ratings is least beneficial for you? a. PG-13 d. G b. R e. PG c. NC-17

Q: Which of the following does the production system in Hollywood today share with that of golden age studio system? a. Both engage in vertical integration. b. Both systems have DreamWorks and Sony as major studios. c. Both employ large numbers of contract employees in the creative arts and crafts. d. Both compel independent producers to distribute movies through them if they want to reach the largest possible audience. e. They both have rigidly structured factory operations.

Q: Of the 718 movies released theatrically in 2016, how many were produced by the major studios? a. 36 d. 400 b. 139 e. 421 c. 288

Q: You are a producer whose film contains material that is clearly for adults only. Your film will likely receive a rating of a. G. d. R. b. PG. e. NC-17. c. PG-13.

Q: You are a producer whose film contains scenes parents might not like for their young children. Your film will likely receive a rating of a. G. d. R. b. PG. e. NC-17. c. PG-13.

Q: How are independent producers reliant on the big six studios? a. Distributing through the big six gives independents the largest possible audience. b. High-end production equipment can only be rented through the big six. c. Only films distributed by the big six can get an MPAA rating. d. The big six control most alternate means of distribution, including Netflix and Amazon. e. Members of labor unions are only allowed to work for the big six.

Q: You are a movie producer making a blockbuster production with a budget of $200 million. Which studio are you most likely to be affiliated with? a. Columbia Pictures d. Strand Releasing b. Wellspring e. IFC Films c. Kino International

Q: You are a movie producer making an independent film with a budget of $100,000. Which studio are you most likely to be affiliated with? a. 20th Century Fox d. DreamWorks b. Universal e. Zeitgeist Films c. Paramount

Q: How have movie franchises fed off TV franchises? a. by giving popular TV characters a larger stage b. by recognizing that audiences enjoy the development of a single story over a long course of time c. by identifying which genres are more popular as franchises d. by identifying new actors that will be popular with audiences e. by recognizing that hiring the same crew for the whole franchise increases efficiency

Q: In what way are the major Hollywood studios facing a challenge heading into the future? a. Movie franchises are doing poorly. b. Several studios and theater chains have gone bankrupt due to digital conversion. c. Continuing to enhance the appeal of movies for the large foreign audience. d. Tickets prices are going down. e. Dwindling box office attendance for superhero films.

Q: The largest foreign consumer of Hollywood films is a. Germany. d. China. b. Britain. e. India. c. Japan.

Q: Which of the following innovations was met with predictions that it would be the end of cinema? a. the Kinetoscope d. digital distribution b. CGI e. the rating system c. 3-D

Q: For studio system-era executives, television represented a. a government-sanctioned opportunity to combine film and television production. b. the opportunity to loan out their stars to television companies. c. a threat to lure away their audiences. d. a source of inspiration for scripts. e. a source of inspiration for remakes.

Q: What is the main reason the U.S. box office made more money in 2013 than in 2012? a. More movies were shot in 3-D. b. Ticket prices were higher. c. There were more movies targeting the 2 to 11 year old demographic. d. More movies were part of a franchise. e. There were more LGBT characters portrayed on screen.

Q: What was the name of the 1926 agreement that stabilized relations between studios and unions? a. Production Code d. Studio Basic Agreement b. Paramount Decision e. Herriot-Hays Agreement c. Paramount Case

Q: Which of the following best describes the rating system implemented by the Motion Picture Association of America? a. It arbitrarily assigns value judgments about films. b. It has no effect on the marketing of a film. c. It significantly affects the potential size of a films future audience. d. It evaluates the adaptation of a script to the final film. e. It is mandated for all films exhibited in the United States.

Q: To crew members working in the studio system, labor unions represented a. an opportunity to campaign for better pay and working conditions. b. a way of communicating more directly with the U.S. government. c. a threat to their livelihood. d. a major development of the 1950s. e. a way of opposing strict division of labor.

Q: Issuing a film in limited release in first-run theaters in major cities is typically used to a. discern whether it will find favor with moviegoing audiences. b. begin the release platform for a large-budget blockbuster. c. write off a film the studio considers to have few commercial prospects. d. end the theatrical run of a film. e. get the film in as many markets as quickly as possible.

Q: Within the filmmaking process, what does division of labor refer to? a. assigning professionals to particular activities b. a highly inefficient method of production c. a way for studios to lower pay scales d. one reason for the decline of the studio system e. a method Hollywood used to combat the rise of television

Q: Professional organizations in the motion picture industry engage in which of the following activities? a. seek equity in pay and working conditions b. assist with the rating system in film regulation c. protect artists rights amid the industrys conversion to digital production d. support the recognition of outstanding achievements of their members to the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences e. represent members in collective bargaining

Q: As a member of the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences in 1927, your adopted mission is to a. successfully integrate Hollywood with international filmmaking centers. b. fight the perception that Hollywood is a prestige source of art. c. improve the artistic standards of film. d. report to the U.S. government about your business plans. e. encourage independent filmmaking.

Q: Which of the following is not a category Academy voters make Oscar nominations for and then vote on to determine the winner? a. Best Casting d. Best Sound Editing. b. Best Live-Action Short Film e. Best Sound Mixing c. Best Makeup and Hairstyling

Q: As a historian studying the first twenty years of the U.S. film industry, what is the main business trend you notice? a. geographical dispersal of studios b. growth in size of production companies from individual-owned to corporate c. rise in West Coast financial investment d. instability among production units e. decline in the role of producers

Q: Which of the following best summarizes the arrangement of financing in Hollywood today? a. It is strictly aligned to money invested by a studio. b. It is strictly aligned to money invested by venture capitalists. c. It is largely unchanged since the golden age studio system. d. Only one person can claim on-screen credit for serving as line producer. e. It can combine funding from a producer and external business interests.

Q: The ratio between above-the-line costs and below-the-line costs in todays film budgets is generally a. 30:70. d. 60:40. b. 40:60. e. 70:30. c. 50:50.